how caer(le) bien/mal is used

Question

can you explain how caer(le) bien/mal is used. I know it means to like/dislike someone. why is there a le?

Answer 1

Ella me cae mal (gordo). She falls badly on me. (I don't like her.)

The usage is correct, but I think using the direct translation can cause confusion. Caer is used idiomatically for various situations and this is just one of them. A closer meaning would be something like "She affects me badly."

Other idiomatic uses: Me cae que sí ........ I know this is how it is

Un día de estos te voy a caer en casa ..... One of these days I am going to stop by to see you (unannounced) at your home:

On that last little bit, English also has an even closer analog to "caer en casa" than "stop by", which is to "drop in" - rogspax, Sep 13, 2013

Exactly it! :) - chileno, Sep 13, 2013

Answer 2

It works something like gustar does for things. You do not like or dislike someone in Spanish, instead they fall well or bad(ly) on you. In English we would say they made and good or bad impression on you.

I don't know about "le" being a part of the construction of this usage.

Ella me cae mal (gordo). She falls badly on me. (I don't like her.)

Since we don't usually tell people to their faces that we like them or don't like them this is generally used in the third person, although I think you could use it in the second person.

Me caes bien. You fall well on me. (I like you.)

Me caigo bien. I fall well on myself. (I like myself.) I have never heard this used but I think the construction is correct.

Sorry for a little repetition - I was composing my answer when you posted! :)) - Noetol, Jun 29, 2012

No hay problema. - gringojrf, Jun 29, 2012

Gringo, "me hago caer bien" ;) - chileno, Sep 13, 2013

Answer 3

The phrase "caer bien" is used pretty much in the same way " gustar" is used. " me gusta el jefe" and "me cae bien el jefe" are interpreted the same way. "I like the boss".

Although these are not really refexive verbs, they always take an indirect object pronoun. In my mind, any difference is somewhat academic. If you think in terms of gustarse and caerse, you will usually come out with the right answer.

In use, both of these can get to be pretty confusing, because the verb is conjugated with reference to the object of the sentence (if you think in terms of the translation).

In the negative, you can use "caer mal" in the same way you could use "no __ gustar".

Answer 4

The difference between gustar and both caer bien and caer mal is that gustar addresses the issue of something physical, while caer bien and caer mal address the issue of something inherent in a person.

My teacher, a Mexican lady, advised us to use "caer" when we want to say simply that we like someone. She cautioned us against using "gustar" as she said it implied that you found the person physically attractive. - malinche, Apr 27, 2017