Vocal endings and tilde

Question

Why " is there a tilde on a in word "instantánea"? Do you need to put it, since the word ends in a vocal?

Answer 1

To put it as asimple as I can:

Open vowels (A, E, O) can form syllables by themselves(consonants not even needed), so a word like AÉREO is syllabified a-E-re-o

Closed vowels (I, U) can't form sylables by themselves when next to an open vowel, unless the diphtong is "broken":

AIRE, in syllables: Ai-re, intact diphtong in here

Creído(believed//arrogant, conceited), cre-I-do, the diphtong was broken by the accent so the I can form a syllable.

Answer 2

P.s.

Generally, the English word "tilde" refers to the mark above the "ñ" and "accent" belongs to the marks we put on "á é í ó ú" vowels.

However, in Spanish, the word can mean either a tilde or an accent mark:

La palabra tilde se refiere a cualquier virgulilla o rasgo que se pone sobre algunas abreviaturas o letras.

Answer 3

It is there to show which syllable is stressed in pronunciation. There are fixed rules in Spanish that tell you where the default syllable stress would be. But sometimes, the word is in reality, stressed differently. These exceptions are marked by the accent-mark or tilde.

Answer 4

In stan TA ne a, It's a palabra esdrujula.

Answer 5

Hi and welcome to the forum.

In this case the "ea" at the end does not form a diphthong, and the stress falls on the previous "a" (which is not the next to the last syllable) and therefore, you need an accent.

In-stan-tAn-e-a

Answer 6

For detail on those defaults:

http://www.spanishdict.com/topics/show/118