Use of Gustar

Question

Do I say "Me gusta manzana" or "A mí me gusta manzana" or are they both correct? If both are not correct, then, please differentiate when to use each.

Answer 1

They mean the same.

However, I would say : A mí me gustan las manzanas.

Or just: Me gustan las manzanas.

Bien. I think, anyway. - annierats, May 31, 2012

Answer 2

Hi and welcome to the forum.

"Me gustan manzanas" (Could also be said "Me gustan las manzanas)

In English (and Spanish) we usually talk about apples in plural unless it's an adjective like "apple pie."

"A mí me gustan manzanas" (Could also be said "A mi me gustan las manzanas)

This is emphasizing that you like apples. For instance, Joe says, "I like banana," and you respond with, "Well, I like apples."

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I used "gustan" instead of "gusta" because the topic is plural. If you wanted to say "I like ice cream" you'd say, "Me gusta el helado."

Thanks. - romaray2, Jun 4, 2012

Answer 3

Neither is correct, but almost. You need to include the definite article, in this case las, to indicate what the subject of the action of the verb is in the sentence:

Me gustan las manzanas

A mí me gustan las manzanas (this one if you want to be emphatic)

Would it be correct for me to say that the difference is in the first case it is saying Ï like apples"while in the second it is saying "I like apples very much"or "I really like apples - romaray2, Jun 4, 2012

Answer 4

Good question. Always keep in mind as you use Spanish that what you are saying when you use gustar is It pleases or they please so the verb is used in the 3rd person form.

The translation is not direct. In English the object of like is the subject in Spanish:

I like apples - apples is the object.

Me gustan las manzanas - manzanas is the subject.