Negation always singular
Hola,
So, back in my first class, when we were learning the indefinite words (alguien, algún etc) I thought we learned that when they´re negated, they become singular
I don´t have any books -- No tengo ningún libro
Is that correct, or am I remembering this at least partly wrong? I remember pretty distinctly having to make negative indefinites into singular.
I ask because I just ran across the phrase
No tendré ningunas clases,
which would seem to violate what I (think I) learned.
If that´s vaguely understandable, could someone help me clear that up?
thanks roger
3 Answers
"No tendré ningunas clases." I don´t know if there is a rule or not, but this sounds really weird. Never in my life have I heard a plural sentence like this in negative and apparently the RAE has never heard this either. Note their examples:
ninguno, na.
(Del lat. nec unus, ni uno).
adj. indef. Ni una sola de las personas o cosas significadas por el sustantivo al que acompaña. El masculino sufre apócope antepuesto al sustantivo. No había ninguna golondrina. No he tenido ningún problema. No he tenido problema ninguno. U. m. en sing.
pron. indef. Ni una sola de las personas o cosas significadas por el sustantivo al que representa. ¿Ha venido algún alumno? No ha venido ninguno. He probado todas las llaves y ninguna funciona.
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OK, so maybe I wasn´t totally spacing that out. I ran across the example of it in a SpanishDict lesson, so I need to go remember where that was, and maybe flag it. Somewhere in a couple lessons I´d skipped ahead to in Section 3 or 4 yesterday. How does one report that?
I looked over my text and class notes this morning, and they were pretty unequivocal about no indefinite negative plurals. Plus, I missed a couple points on a quiz once, and missing a question really sticks in my craw and head.
I removed this answer after realizing that my response was incorrect. I wouldn't want someone to have bad information.