Si está mi tía, podemos ir a su casa.

Question

If my aunt is home, we can go to her house. (The title sentence is the translation of this English one and are from the the website)

In the first part of the sentence in Spanish, there is uncertainty or doubt if my aunt be at home. Then why is present indicative used why not Si, esté mi tíá?.

Secondly, why there is no mension of home, in the title sentence like "Si, está me tia en casa instead of Si está mi tía

Does estar means to be at home?

Thanks for your assistance.

Answer 1

Estar doesn't by itself mean to be at home, but estar can be a bit like English "are they there" (where-ever There may be)

One of my Spanish lessons had the same concept where a businessman was asking a secretary if the person they were to meet was available there in the office. The answer was simply "No está" Meaning, ¨he´s not here¨

This would seem to be the same thing.

If my aunt is there (at home - en casa), then we can go to her house

As for the other part, either the indicative or subjunctive can follow a conditional. The condition may be in doubt, but the ability to go there, if the condition is fulfilled, is not, thus the indicative.

Let´s see what others say too.

Fatanstic stuff Rog! - sinsonte, May 27, 2012

Answer 2

Roger has pretty much explained it. This is just a shortened way of saying this particular phrase and it is very common.

There really is not any uncertainty here "Si está mi tía, podemos ir a su casa." If she´s home, we can go to her house and if not, we can´t. I suppose you could think of this as the aunt´s house rule and there is no variation to this rule. It quite clear and leaves no room for misunderstanding, so indicative is used.

Cool info. I've just learned something new right before bed, jaja. - sinsonte, May 27, 2012