Is this a true statement?

Question

Is the following a true statement?

Most of the reverse syntax order in Spanish that new students complain about is due to Spanish grammar rules concerning direct and indirect object pronouns.

Example:

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I want him to go to the store with me. In English 'him' follows the verb 'want' but In Spanish 'him' goes before the verb 'want'. Simple example: Lo quiero ir a la tienda conmigo.

Please comment. thank you, Will

Answer 1

I think you could also write that 'Quisiera que él vaya a la tienda conmigo '

And I don't fully fully get the question... or rather, how one would answer that.

I was simply commenting on how hard new students found using direct and indirect object pronouns because they are forced to place them in front of the verb. Now 'quisiera' is a very stange word; it seems to be an ultra differential way to ask something. - artistnatural, May 23, 2012

I think hes trying to use subjunctive, but Im pretty sure hes using past subjunctive when it would be present. - jttorbey72, May 23, 2012

Answer 2

If i get what youre asking, then yes. A lot of it would be because of that. But I think its also partly because of some verbs like Gustar which dont follow the normal conjugation rule. Is that what youre asking?

to jttorbey72. TY for the comment. Oh and a side to to your comment re Gustar; I have sometimes suspected Gustar and othe verbs like it may be a hold over from the Arabic influence in Spain. Do you think that also might be true? - artistnatural, May 23, 2012

I cant be sure. But I dont think so. I think its just that they think differently. For instance, gustar does not mean to like. It means to be pleasing. For instance, Me gustan las señoritas. Literally means, To me, they are pleasing, the ladies. - jttorbey72, May 23, 2012

I believe the altered thought process combined with the weird pronouns is what confuses alot of people - jttorbey72, May 23, 2012