Ar , Er and Ir???
¡Hola! guys,
Thanks for your help till now, needed one more help from you all guys.
Firstly I learned AR conjugation, I observed that ER conjugation is the same , it's just that I have to remove all the 'a' and insert 'e'. But the conjugation of IR is totally different.
Why so ???
Is it the beauty of the language or a reason behind this thing?
I know this is a kiddish Q , but sorry , as i am a Spanish beginner I had to ask this Q .
Gracias ![]()
5 Answers
Actually, there is no difference. I think you are getting confused between verbs that end in "ir" and irregular verbs. (A lot of verbs that end in "ir" are irregular, but not all)
- Not all verbs ending in "ir" are irregular. I.E. "vivir" = to live, "prohibir", "abrir" = To open, "partir" and so on.
- Not all verbs ending in "ar" or "er" are regular. I.E. Acertar, forzar, caber, saber, end so on
Yes, I think this is confusion between regular and irregular verbs, w hich you have a bit mixed in with the endings AR / ER / IR.
A LOT of IR verbs seem to be irregular, so that is probably what is throwing you off. There are both regular and irregular verbs of all 3 endings.
But in actuality, as far as regular verbs go, IR and ER are just the same, so if you already feel comfortable with ER, then you also already know IR, even if you don't realize it yet ![]()
If you look at the verb conjugator on this site, it very conveniently highlights the irregular verbs in a diffferent color (I think red). I'd suggest you type in some of the IR verbs you've studied and wondered about, and I bet you'll see they are irregular.
hth roger
Good question! The different spellings and verb endings come mainly from the word origins, which are mainly from Latin, since Spanish is a "romance language," which means it came from Latin, not that it is "romantic" necessarily. Of course there is influence from other languages, such as Arabic, Greek, and English to name a few. Someone else may have a more in depth answer, but that is a "quick and dirty" explanation.
Hello, Zayesha. Can you explain what you mean by "the conjugation of IR is totally different"? I have always considered the conjugation of "ÏR" verbs to be practically the same as for "ER" verbs, and that the conjugation of "AR" verbs to be more different than the other two. So, could you please elaborate on your observation, so that I can better understand the point you are trying to make? Gracias. Y sí, hay mucha ayuda aquí.
¡Hola! Guys , by all your answers I think yes I am mixing the irregular verbs with ( Ar , Ir and Er) . I will research it and try to make myself understand, and if then I have any problem , i'll ask you guys.
Thanks for all your help![]()