Can the vosotros form be understood in latin america?
Just pondering on some Spanish grammar and wondering whether or not it would be understood in other countries, seeing as it is something unique to Spain.
8 Answers
Hey Olivia! Yes, It can be understood when listening to it, but personally I have to say that it is a bit difficult to speak using the "vosotros" form.
Saludos 
To my knowlege, it is not used outside of Spain, but you find the "vosotros" forms used many times in popular books, especially those translated from other languages. I suppose the reason for this is that many translators work in Spain.
Of course it can! That is pure Spanish. The fact that it is not used in Latin Americ doesn't make it wrong. In some Latin American countries even the singular part of "vosotros" is used = vos. I.E. ¿Qué querés vos?, ¡Vos tenés miedo!, etc. I know this part of Spanish is used at least in Colombia, Chile, Argentina and Costa Rica.
For us it sounds weird and archaic, or least most people I know think like that, but since we're taught that at school since we start taking español as a subject, we understand it perfectly, but quite a few people might have issues with its corresponding verb cojungation.
Most people I know have more trouble with the second person singular vos, used in Argentina and certain parts of Colombia, Venezuela and Central America, but in no way does that affect the intelligibility of the different variants, slang does though.
If you were to go to Mexico and use vosotros, it wouldnt be understood. The only place in Mexico I can see that being used is in the iglesias where they use the "os" form. The vos can be understood in other countries, like farallon said...vos sos, vos tenés, vos amás, vos hacés...
With all respect diagonx, yes it is perfect Spanish! Even the Reina Valera version of the Bible use it. You can go to the RAE and find for yourself that it is correct. I don't use it but I know it is correct. Languages change all the time! Even English!
I never said it was flawed Spanish, and as can be read on my post, what I said is that for me and most people I know it sounds weird and outdated, never imperfect, just as correct as the Spanish I speak.
What's interesting is that you consider our different varieties of the language to be less pure than Spain's version, or Madrid's privileged version for that matter, you said it yourself, and I well aware that languages change and evolve, and that's where I dissent from what you said, Madrid's Spanish didn't sound like it does by the time of the American wars of independence and the ecclesiastical uses of the language is rather archaic, in some parts they still use Latin for Mass, but I wouldn't know, I haven't been to a religious temple in ages. As far as the rules of grammar aren't broken there's no way to consider that one variety is purer or less pure, superior or inferior than others.
RAE is there to keep the language as a unity, but not to tell people that one version of the language is better than the others
It sounds a bit weird (like when in English the word "thou" is used), but nevertheless it can be understood by anyone with very little knodlege of Spanish grammar. I know my little sister, when she was 5, could understand a children's television show from Spain perfectly. Maybe some illiterate people wouldn't understand at all.
If you're not a native speaker, it might create some confusion becouse of the changes in conjugation (I myself can understand very little in English when the "thou" or "ye" is used)
It's not unique to Spain, it's just that it's diminished over time in South America. Without looking it up I think that Uruguay and Argentina are exceptions. (think of expressions and usage in England that can be understood but not used here).
