Placing Direct and Indirect pronouns in the same sentence?

Question

Correct me if im wrong, but I believe there are two ways to form a sentence with both indirect and direct pronouns. If "I bought her a suit" was the sentence to be translated, a direct (without pronouns) translation would be: Yo compro un traje a ella

However, after changing un traje to lo and ella to le, you would have Yo le lo compro a ella? yo se lo compro a ella

I believe yo se lo compro (a ella) makes sense, but shouldn't there be another form of the sentence (if that one was with pronouns detached and before the verb, another form would be after and attached, possibly).

Bottom line: would "Yo cómproselo" make sense?

Answer 1

I'm no expert, but I'm pretty sure the only time you can attach DOP's and IOP's to the end of a verb is when it is an affirmative command, an infinitive, or a present participle/gerrund.

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I don't think it is correct for it to be attached to the end of "compro".

Ah! Little fact had escaped me! Thanks! - muesugi, Apr 15, 2012

Welcome! - linabeena95, Apr 15, 2012

Also, if it is a aff command, infinitive or gerund, can it be both before and after or just after? - muesugi, Apr 15, 2012