Is this correct? "Si te llamo, ¿vendrás?"
On this site, in the Spanish Grammar section, I was studying (Adjectives - Interrogatives - Question Words). It says, when only a part of the sentence is a question you only place the question marks around the portion that is a question. This is the example they give:
Si te llamo, ¿vendrás? (If I call you, will you come?)
I tried saying the sentence with the question at the end but it didn't sound right to me? Why does the complete Spanish sentence sound like a question to me and not just the last part? I would write it, "¿Si te llamo, vendrás?, because the whole sentence sounds like a question.
Please help me understand this. Thank you all in advance for your welcomed assistance.
3 Answers
Hola Nilda: Wonderful question. I hope the following helps.
From my Arriba textbook: "To confirm information already given or supposed, simply add to the end of a statement a tag word or phrase with rising intonation (such as; ¿no?, ¿verdad?, ¿no es cierto?)."
"Miguel es de Barcelona, ¿verdad? -- Miguel is from Barcelona, right?"
In the Arriba example, "verdad" is the tag word, and in your example from SD, "vendrás" is the tag word.
My attempt: Las palabras de etiquetas tomar un poco de tiempo para acostumbrarse, ¿no?
Tag words take a bit of getting used to, don´t they?
Hey Nilda --- I know this can be confusing. In your example, when you say Si te llamo (if I call you) that portion of your phrase is not really a question (it's a hypothesis). However, the actual question is: Will you come over? ¿Vendrás?
I hope this helps.
I can't explain this but it's true. Spanish is a different language and it only marks the part of the sentence that is the actual question with question marks.
I think this is because, when you speak, that's when your intonation changes and you put the question into question mode, as it were.
I'm sorry if it's not very clear, perservere and it will become so, I assure you, this is one of the smallest problems you will ever have with the interesting Spanish language.