How would you say, "It's for me to read"?

Question

I'm curious to know how sentences like "I'ts for me to read.", "It's for you to do." or "The game's for him to play." would translate in Spanish. The part i'm confused about is if you say "Es para mí leer", or if you say "Es para mí a leer". Thanks for your help.

Hola, welcome to the forum! - rac1, Mar 25, 2012

Answer 1

In English you would claim ownership of the material or game saying, "It's for me to read/it's mine to read" or "The game is for him to play/is his to play" In Spanish, you can also do it by showing ownership, "Es mío para leer" = "It's mine to read", but I think you're looking for "Es para que lea yo" Literally, "It's so that I read it." This would be the way of saying "It's intended that I read it/It's for me to read."

"The game is for him to play" would subsequently be "El juego es para que lo juegue (él)."

"Para que" triggers the subjunctive tense. There are explanations on this site explaining how to use it. Hope this helps.

Answer 2

esto es mi para leer , el juego para que juegue

I dont mean to be rude, but this answer is not correct. "Esto es mi para leer" is gramatically incorrect and "el juego para que juegue" doesn't sound natural. - saratoga, Mar 25, 2012

Answer 3

its for me to read "es para leerlo yo" the game's for him to play "el juego es para que el lo juegue"

Answer 4

How about...Es mío para leer. And...El juego es para jugar él.

This is how I would say two of your offerings, although I must say they are ackward constructions in English that I wouldn't use.