Tengo ms preguntas

Question

áAfter me gusta do you always have to use an infinative. Could I say me gusta las chicas de España

me gustan as you are referring to chicas, plural. - Eddy, Mar 9, 2012

Sorry, it looks like this was pointed out in other posts. - Eddy, Mar 9, 2012

Answer 1

You can definetly say that sentence except for one part.

The infinitives in say a sentence like this: Me gusta bailar los lunes, represent the subject. As you know from English, the subject can be a noun like "las chicas" in your sentence or a verb ending in "ing" which the infinitive in Spanish can represent.

Your sentence is almost correct except that since gustar is a reflexive verb, so it should accord with the object you're talking about, and in your case it's las chicas.

REAL ANSWER: Me gustan las chicas de España.

I hope this helped.

Gustar is not a reflexive verb. However, it is conjugated with the object "las chicas" because in Spanish, this is considered the subject. - kdrinning, Mar 9, 2012

Sorry, I used the wrong terminology, but you get the point. - Valias, Mar 9, 2012

Yea thanks mate I knew Idid'nt pluarize it - Garry-J, Mar 12, 2012

De nada. - Valias, Mar 12, 2012

Answer 2

You do not have to use an infinitive after me gusta. Your correct sentence would be Me gustan las chicas de Español. Gustar is conjugated to the subject. In Spanish, the subject of the sentence is las chicas, so you use gustan.

Your sentence has a couple of mistakes. Valias has it right. - 00d312f5, Mar 9, 2012