Home
Q&A
Viene con nosotros

Viene con nosotros

2
votes

I'm having some problem understanding why "nosotros" would be used in the above phrase rather than "nos" which is more common as the definition for "us". Can someone help me understan this?

1920 views
updated Mar 6, 2012
posted by t8805jg

2 Answers

4
votes

There is a difference between 'nos' and 'nosotros.' If you put "Viene con nos" you would be incorrect. I know it translates the same with a computer, but in reality it is not. In this case only nosotros will work. I now have myself a bit confused, but just remember 'nos' and 'nosotros' are not the same and will communicate different things.

Also, as far as I understand it, 'Nos' can never be used as the subject of the sentence, only as a indirect object pronoun or as a reflexive pronoun. (john20 check me here)

updated Mar 6, 2012
edited by JKT1776
posted by JKT1776
thank you jkt... that makes sense - t8805jg, Mar 6, 2012
Nice answer. I learned something. . .:) - t1funnyface, Mar 6, 2012
Nosotros isn't the subject of the sentence "Viene con nosotros". - john20, Mar 6, 2012
Your right john20! The subject is who they are addressing. oops, I'll correct it. - JKT1776, Mar 6, 2012
0
votes

''Nos'' is ''we'' and ''nosotros' is us, just nosotros-as is used both for ''we'' and ''us''(akkusative), but just ''nos'' is an abbreviation for 'we'' not being able to be used for ''us''..

updated Mar 6, 2012
posted by CRAT
this makes NO sense - t8805jg, Mar 6, 2012
Sorry, Crat, your explanation is not correct. - --Mariana--, Mar 6, 2012