Home
Q&A
Doesn't fuera have some ambiguity?

Doesn't fuera have some ambiguity?

1
vote

If I'm correct, fuera means both "outside of" and subjunctive of to be. How do you tell those common words apart?

1361 views
updated Mar 5, 2012
posted by Strycora

5 Answers

1
vote

Good question! Welcome to the forum.

The words are used differently in South/Central America/Mexico and Spain. In Spain, they use afuera with motion verbs, e.g., Voy afuera (I'm going outside), and fuera is used with state verbs, e.g., Estoy fuera (I'm outside).

Latin America, afuera is used for both.

updated Mar 5, 2012
posted by --Mariana--
1
vote

If you are looking at a sentence that has fuera in it, try translating it and if you translate it as "outside of", it may make sense. If you translate it this way and it seems like you´re now missing a verb, then you know it should be the verb form.

And I agree with all the above answers. Context is key.

Just like in English, when someone says "You need to book a suite for our vacation," you know that they are referring to "book" as a verb, meaning to reserve. They are not just randomly referring to literature. If it translated to "book" meaning the type of book you read, then you will see the sentence doesn´t have a verb and also makes no sense.

updated Mar 5, 2012
posted by missy8888
1
vote

In the same way that fui means I was and I went. You tell from context.

updated Mar 5, 2012
posted by ocbizlaw
1
vote

Well to tell you the truth fuera does mean both of those not to mention you can tell by the sentence structure so next time you read a sentence with fuera translate it so that it makes sense.

updated Mar 5, 2012
posted by angryhorse
1
vote

Context.

updated Mar 5, 2012
posted by FigueroaGaray33