A Question about the Subjunctive.
Today in another post entitled "Wild Horses" I used the following sentence:
- ¡Qué lastima que no teníamos una cámara!
And Mariana commented as follows:
- I think you should use the past tense subjunctive after "¡Qué lastima...."
So my question is: Since it is a fact that we did not have a camera why would it be subjunctive. I thought subjunctive was about uncertainties and emotions, not cold hard facts.
Can someone please explain it to me?
Does "¿Qué lastima..." always trigger the subjunctive even when what follows is a fact?
I understand that if I had said I wish I had had a camera that that would require the subjunctive. But this was more like "Too bad we didn't have a camera."
4 Answers
"¡Qué lástima que no teníamos una cámara!" = The fact that we did not have a camera at that particular moment sucks.
"¡Qué lástima que no tuviésemos una cámara!" = The idea/notion that we did not have a camera at that particular moment sucks. The memory of that moment sucks. The 'abstract reality' of it, if you will.
Does "¿Qué lastima..." always trigger the subjunctive even when what follows is a fact?
Nope. You could say either, "¡Qué lastima que no teníamos una cámara!" or, "¡Qué lastima que no tuviésemos una cámara!" It's all about the nuance of what you are trying to express/convey.
I found this... Perhaps it will help.
One reply said:
The renowned American Spanish professor George DeMello's book, Español Contémporaneo confirms lazarus1907's observations- either the indicative or the subjunctive could be used, with the subjunctive being a bit more emphatic in this particular case....
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Does "¿Qué lastima..." always trigger the subjunctive even when what follows is a fact?
According to what I have found, no, it does not. ![]()
Hola! First of all, you need a "que" there: "¡Qué lastima que no teníamos una cámara! Secondly, except for that tiny little thing, your sentence is perfect; no subjunctive needed.