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Why is se used in this sentence..?

Why is se used in this sentence..?

1
vote

¿Es ésta una influencia del inglés, o se está viendo en otros países también? Graciassmile

1227 views
updated Feb 14, 2012
posted by andyhewitt12

4 Answers

2
votes

Can you please write the sentence in English, so we know what you are trying to say in Spanish? It is not quite clear!

updated Feb 14, 2012
posted by farallon7
Hi, correct me if I'm wrong but pretty sure it roughly translates to: Is this an english influence or is this in other countries too? A comprehension question from a reading, would be my guess. - dyruse, Feb 14, 2012
I guess it is! Having some context would be much better. - farallon7, Feb 14, 2012
Somos afortunados que todavía hay por lo menos unos hispanohablantes aquí. - Xocoyote, Feb 14, 2012
1
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Because the verb estar is reflexive! It's one of those verbs that is reflexive in spanish but we do not use this type of grammar in english. Hope this helped slightly.

updated Feb 14, 2012
posted by dyruse
0
votes

I think the se is being used to form the passive voice. In the sentence there is no clear doer of the action, therefore "se está viendo" to me would translate as "is being seen." This is the same way that you would use, "Cómo se dice' How is it said? If somebody disagrees, shout it out.

updated Feb 14, 2012
posted by Pinolero
0
votes

Maybe you should check the reference section under intransitive and transitive verbs. I am no authority, but this looks like the use of "se" to act as a direct object place-holder thereby giving the transitive verb something as its direct object. ¿Es ésta una influencia del inglés, o se está viendo en otros países también? I would think the se equated to "this same thing" in this sentence. But wait for someone less of a novice to answer.

updated Feb 14, 2012
posted by Lector_Constante