Does molestar require an indirect object pronoun?

Question

Example: "Le molesto a mi hermano." or "Molesto a mi hermano."

¡Bienvenida al foro! Welcome to the forum! - 0074b507, Jan 30, 2012

Answer 1

Molestar can take either a direct object or indirect object depending on the meaning, and whether the verb is used as a transitive or intransitive verb.

Perdone que lo moleste - Sorry to trouble you. (DO)

¿Le molesta si fumo? - Do you mind if I smoke? (IO)

In your example, which literally would be "I am bothersome to my brother", I believe you should use le as an anticipatory indirect object. Somehow the sentence seems funny to me. Maybe it's odd to see molestar in the first person like that.

And, maybe wait for a better answer!

If you check the list here [http://www.studyspanish.com/lessons/gustar.htm] you will see molestar listed as a gustar-like verb. - 0074b507, Jan 30, 2012

What's the difference between "Perdone que lo moleste" and "Perdone que le moleste"? - mirodriguez, Jan 30, 2012

It can be used as a gustar like verb, but also as a transitive verb. Check out WordRef. - Jeremias, Jan 30, 2012

Answer 2

The correct sentence is: 'Molesto a mi hermano', but the other sentence is correct when carry a accent (molestó):

'Le molestó a mi hermano que ella no viniera' (My brother was upset that she did not come)