Pie es con tilde? Si o no. Porque

Question

Si pie tiene tilde en la e, porque es monosilaba, pero si acentuas la i, es del verbo piar, no?

¿"pie" es con tilde? Sí o no. ¿Por qué? For future reference, please use correct grammar and punctuation. Thank you. - Gekkosan, Jan 27, 2012

Answer 1

When Pie = foot don't have 'tilde', because is a word 'aguda', means that the accent is in the last syllable, but only the words ending vowel, n, s have 'tilde', examples:

Camión (truck) Después (later) Caminó (walk)

Answer 2

No, pie es simplemente pie. No tiene tilde.

Sorry, didn't realize you were talking about the verb. BRB.

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For "foot", pie doesn't have a tilde.

For the verb piar, well, there's a whole conjugation table right here. If it has no accent on the "i", then you know it's just one syllable. If it does, then you place stress on it.

"Pie" can have 2 meanings. Either it represents the word for "foot" or it's the 1st-person singular in the preterit for "piar". - Goldie_Miel, Jan 27, 2012