Direct/ ID Object Pronouns les/los.
" i am afraid of the dogs" does this translate as "los tengo miedo a los perros" ? los refers to the dogs so am i correct in assuming "los tengo miedo" means "i am afraid of them"... also would " i gave a treat to the dogs" be translated as " les dí una delicia a los perros" ?
im trying to decide how to use the pronouns les/los and in which contexts... and right now the translations above show my level of understanding so only comment if you are sure im incorrect and only then if you know how to explain. i need to know if im right or wrong?
9 Answers
Les tengo miedo a los perros
Tengo miedo de los perros.
In both sentences, miedo is the direct object of the verb tengo. In the first, a los perros is the indirect object, and the indirect object pronoun les can precede the verb although it is optional. In the second, de los perros is not an indirect object because it doesn't begin with the preposition a--since there is no indirect object, you cannot put les before the verb. The prepositional phrase de los perros is an adyacente circunstancial. Alternatively, miedo de los perros can be considered a noun phrase that is the direct object of the verb tengo, with de los perros being an atributo preposicional of the direct object miedo.
Well I'm afraid I can't explain the mechanical grammar of it but I do know that the phrase is tenerle miedo a = to be afraid of something, not tenerlo/la etc 
Try calling Quentin to the thread he's good with all the IDO, DO things
Les tengo miedo a los perros
Don't ask me. I was looking at the" Le tiene miedo a los perros" in the other thread trying to figure out which type of dative the le is. (dativo ético?)
I see little need for including the los in los tiene miedo de/a los perros.
If you had said me tengo miedo de los perros we might have had a dative of interest.
les dí una delicia a los perros
(no accent on di in the preterit)
The les (i.o.p.) is optional in that sentence, but usually used. And it is a true indirect object rather than another of the many dative usages.
Hmm having done a little extra digging - is this right?
tenerle miedo a + noun (to be afraid of someone or something)
tener miedo de + info (to be afraid to do something)
which should mean that 'tener miedo de los perros' is gramatically incorrect, not to say you won't hear it ofcourse but I'd be interested to know if any one can confirm or deny the above. I've lost the page now but it was in a grammar book, given as a common mistake made by learners of Spanish.
Lorenzo - Les tengo miedo a los perros
Tengo miedo de los perros.
Great answer btw Lorenzo! So do both of these sentences say the same thing or is there a slightly different nuance?
I believe that both sentences would use "Les."
Les tengo miedo de los perros.
Les dí una delicia a los perros.
Me, te, le, nos, os & les are all indirect object pronouns. I.O. pronouns are used for for "To whom?" or "For whom?" (Ex: I gave a treat to the dogs. - I gave a treat to them. - Les dí una delicia.)
Me, te, lo, la, nos, os, los, & las are all direct object pronouns. D.O. pronouns are used for the thing that recieves the action of the verb. (Ex: I gave a treat to the dogs. - I gave it to the dogs. - La dí a los perros.)
I think in your first sentence, indirect object pronouns would be used. However, it is a tricky example. For more help you might want to look at these reference articles & this lesson:
I haven't checked the RAE, but to me:
Tengo miedo de ( que ) los perros (muerdan a alguien/me muerdan) = I am afraid the dogs biting someone.
Les tengo un miedo parido a los perros. = I am afraid of the dogs.
Am I making sense?
Any other takers?
