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Why is "ha quedado claro" always "have I made myself clear"

Why is "ha quedado claro" always "have I made myself clear"

2
votes

Why is "ha quedado claro" always "have I made myself clear"

and not "he quedado claro", I know I must have asked this a time ago, but I wonder - I guess he's really saying "Has it been made clear" but that's not what this says though it's - "Has it been clear" = was it clear? which is, a bit odd, but I always hear the commander / one in charge say this. ¿Ha quedado claro?

2491 views
updated Jan 15, 2012
posted by jeezzle

5 Answers

3
votes

At the risk of answering about another movie I haven't seen (: P) I would say your instinct about "is it clear/has it been made clear" is right on. The literal translation isn't "have I made myself clear" but the meaning seems equivalent to me.

updated Jan 15, 2012
posted by unMica
Good answer, Mica! ;)) - territurtle, Jan 14, 2012
why thank you, miss terri! - unMica, Jan 14, 2012
Agree. - MLucie, Jan 14, 2012
Except that the focus is on the unstated subject, not the speaker. - gringojrf, Jan 14, 2012
2
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¿Ha quedado esto claro?

The subject is esto , so it needs to be third persongrin

updated Jan 15, 2012
posted by 00494d19
2
votes

¿(Te) ha quedado claro?

(You) it has left clear? or It has left you clear?

Is that clear to you? Is that clear?

updated Jan 15, 2012
posted by Jack-OBrien
1
vote

Is it clear? = Está claro?

Ha quedado claro? = Has it been explained clearly? etc. etc.

updated Jan 15, 2012
posted by chileno
1
vote

Thanks to this thread the whole thing about using the third person is now becoming more clear to me, especially when Jack O put the "te" in.

updated Jan 15, 2012
posted by caza