Why is there no preterit subjunctive?
1
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I don't understand why not.
1154 views
updated Jan 12, 2012
posted by Blackpsych
3 Answers
0
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Check out this thread
updated Jan 12, 2012
posted by Jack-OBrien
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Probably because the subjunctive really doesn't have any of the 'time of action' like the other verbs. So it's basically one big non-reality. Either the condition or situation exists, or doesn't exist. It's all about the idea in the large scale of things. So there is really no need for a one time action, so if there was it probably fell out of use for this fact.
updated Jan 12, 2012
edited by Himself12794
posted by Himself12794
0
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If my memory serves me, There actually is. Its just not used anymore just like the old English.
Anyone please correct me if I am wrong.
updated Jan 12, 2012
posted by Gregory84
