Appending indirect objects to the end of verbs

Question

Can indirect objects ever be applied to the end of verb even if it is not in infinitive or imperative form? I know this can be done to a certain extent. I've seen examples in the Bible where they say something like: Díjeronles or díceles. Is it that these are older construction that are not used anymore and are now considered bad grammar? Or are they just not used?

Good question :) - Kiwi-Girl, Jan 12, 2012

Why not find a modern version of the bible? Would you tell an English learner to learn "Thou shalt turn off thine mobile phones whilst on a train" - rabbitwho, Jan 12, 2012

I understand what you're saying Rabbit. But some people who are familiar with the King James in English prefer to read Reina Valera along with it so they can compare them side by side. - Nicole-B, Jan 12, 2012

¡rotfl! The 11th commandment, Rabbit? You've made my day. - ajaks, Jan 12, 2012

I did wind up purchasing a more modern version for my Kindle this year because I am not using the English version to help me this time around. - Nicole-B, Jan 12, 2012

yes and that's the version I have right now that gets sent out in the mini-versions with the compared side by side - Himself12794, Jan 12, 2012

It's a great question, Himself. - ajaks, Jan 12, 2012

I found reading that helps me sooo much in understanding. It comes to a point when I'm not translating to English sometimes an am just reading. That's the way that I like it! - Himself12794, Jan 12, 2012

"Thou shalt turn off thy mobile phone ..." (unless thou hast more than one mobile phone). If addressing more than one person, "Ye shall ..." - samdie, Jan 12, 2012

"Thou shalt not useth thine phone except that it be in case of trouble or be an emergency to the preservasation of thineself." - Himself12794, Jan 12, 2012

Answer 1

Hi:

In older literature (1800 to 1930) they used to attach pronoums at the end of verbs more often then in modern Spanish.

Reading classical texts will improve your Spanish but can I suggest that you read more recent books?

For the Bible, do as you please.

Do as thou shalt please.....my favorite Bible scripture. :-) - 0074b507, Jan 12, 2012

the Bible is the only piece of literature that I have in Spanish. can you suggest others? - Himself12794, Jan 12, 2012

and thanks, Carhl, that's what I wanted to know! - Himself12794, Jan 12, 2012

my favorite, "and it came to pass....", doubling meaning intended - Himself12794, Jan 12, 2012

Answer 2

the Bible is the only piece of literature that I have in Spanish. can you suggest others? - Himself12794

I would suggest that you find the Spanish version of any book you have already read in English and are familiar with. There are so many books available in both languages, especially in U.S. stores. If you are in the beginning to intermediate stage of learning, I think this is a helpful approach. Because you are already familiar with the text, you will be better able to focus on new vocabulary and sentence structure.

I've pretty much got the grammar down pat, I just need to increase my vocabulary and familirize myself idiomatic expressions and such. - Himself12794, Jan 12, 2012

I find translations of Milan Kundera books easy enough to read, but I don't think they go well with the Bible. Hmmm... I thought Camus's the Stranger wasn't too hard either, and anything by Paulo Coelho is a sinch! Too easy in fact. - rabbitwho, Jan 12, 2012

So normally the posessive of something ending with S is s' right? Like the cats' toys. But if you don't pronounce the s... ? - rabbitwho, Jan 12, 2012

Answer 3

They can be attached to infinitives and present participles.

Eg: Le estoy comprando un pastel and estoy comprándole un pastel. (I am buying him a cake).

Also, with commands, direct and/or indirect objects are attached to the end affirmative commands but precede negative commands. Escríbeme (write to me), but no me escribas (don't write to me).

I hope that helps

I know about those ways, but the examples I saw had them at the end of the preterite tense verbs. How about that? Is that an antiquated way that no one uses anymore? - Himself12794, Jan 12, 2012

Sorry I'm not sure about that, as far as I knew the only way to attach IOP's to the end of verbs was the ones I gave above, here's another thread on the subject - Kiwi-Girl, Jan 12, 2012

http://www.spanishdict.com/answers/155567/why-does-the-indirect-object-pronoun-sometimes-attach-to-some-verbs-and-it-makes-no-sense-see-example - Kiwi-Girl, Jan 12, 2012