Pronominal verbs and object pronouns Derramarse

Question

I thought I had the reflexive, indirect object and direct object pronouns sorted out (R.I.D) but no, I am still confused, so help needed please. I found the phrase se derramó la leche - the milk (has) spilt, in the dictionary which led me to trying to make a couple more phrases. My dictionary gives the verb as being reflexive so all persons used, the SD website dictionary gives it as being a pronominal verb which I think means only 3rd person singular or plural can be used.

I have spilt the milk - se me ha derramado la leche. Would this be correct?

I have spilt it - se me ha derramado???? Really confused here as I see the se coming from the infinitive and being used as a reflexive/pronominal pronoun and I'm not sure how to express the word "it" in this situation or is it understood?

Many thanks for any help.

Answer 1

Would it help if I told you the following?

Se derramó la leche = The milk was spilt/spilled

Se ha derramado leche = milk has been spilled

Se me ha derramado la leche/he derramado la leche = I have spilled the milk. (weird, but that's the way it is)

A great help thank you. The first example was from the dictionary and I wondered about the has in the translation. - caza, Jan 11, 2012

Answer 2

My dictionary gives the verb as being reflexive so all persons used, the SD website dictionary gives it as being a pronominal verb which I think means only 3rd person singular or plural can be used.

?????

Could you explain that further? As far as I know, being used reflexively is using it pronominally. Did you perhaps mean to say that your dictionary says that it can be used both transitively and reflexively (pronominally)?

No - my ictionary just says reflexive - hence some of my confusion. - caza, Jan 11, 2012