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use of **conocerse**

use of **conocerse**

3
votes

I am having difficulty making sense of the use of the word conocerse in the context "mientras después de conocerse el incidente" from Univsion.com:

Cuatro personas han sido detenidas por supuestamente suministrar el licor ilícito, mientras después de conocerse el incidente, los residentes del área destrozaron una licorería, señaló la jefa del gobierno de Bengala Occidental, Mamata Banerjee.

Can someone explain why the pronomial form of conocer is used here?

7803 views
updated Dec 20, 2011
posted by cdunn3
Welcome to the forum, :) interesting question:) - 00494d19, Dec 20, 2011
Good question! - MLucie, Dec 20, 2011

5 Answers

1
vote

If the others are correct and conocer (to know) is referring to knowledge of the incident, then why was it used rather than saber? I thought conocer was knowledge of a person (Do you know Mike Tyson?) and saber was factual knowledge (I know kung fu).

updated Dec 20, 2011
posted by Netjert
Conocer can also mean to know about the existence of something. - lorenzo9, Dec 20, 2011
Ah-ha! Thanks! - Netjert, Dec 20, 2011
1
vote

Appreciate the discussion so far. The closest "definitive" help I have received so far has been from QFREED but COGUMELA appears to disagree. Can anyone else provide anymore clarification?

updated Dec 20, 2011
posted by cdunn3
What cogumela said is correct. - lorenzo9, Dec 20, 2011
Yep. - territurtle, Dec 20, 2011
So what does conocerse translate to in the context of the original post? - cdunn3, Dec 20, 2011
it was known - lorenzo9, Dec 20, 2011
Thanks lorenzo9 - cdunn3, Dec 20, 2011
1
vote

It's not emphatic, it does make sense. It's a passive: after the incident was known.

That is interesting. I thought that the passive se construction required the verb to be conjugated in the third person. However, after "después de" the infinitive is grammatically required here, so your answer makes sense. I guess it is the same as "después de ser conocido".

dudas

After further research, Grámatica de la lengua española seems to say the the passive and impersonal se are used just like any other atonic se and there are discussions on the WordReference forum that indicate that using the se enclítico in the passive and impersonal forms is grammatically correct.

Learn something new everyday. smile´

. . .changes level back to beginner wink

updated Dec 20, 2011
edited by lorenzo9
posted by lorenzo9
that is the impersonal, I leant that the other day, jeje - 00494d19, Dec 20, 2011
According to dudas, the impersonal se requires the singular while the passive reflexive can use the singular or the plural, but both require the conjugated form. - lorenzo9, Dec 20, 2011
I have definitely seen passive se used as an attachment to the infinitive for "to be {verb}." - webdunce, Dec 20, 2011
For example, in Disney's The Incredibles, the annoying little boss says "un reloj necesita limpiarse, lubricarse, y ajustarse." - webdunce, Dec 20, 2011
0
votes

It's after familiarizing themselves with the incident, the residents....is it not?

Bow to wiser heads.

updated Dec 20, 2011
edited by 0074b507
posted by 0074b507
I would say it is not. - cogumela, Dec 20, 2011
0
votes

The pronominal form of conocer makes no sense there. I guess it could be the emphatic use of se, but I've never seen it used like that--ie. attached to the end of an infinitive.

updated Dec 20, 2011
edited by lorenzo9
posted by lorenzo9
It's not emphatic, it does make sense. It's a passive: after the incident was known - cogumela, Dec 20, 2011