What kind of grammar rule is this?

Question

Águila y Satur descubren que las tumbas están siendo profanadas. Why does "tumbas" have to agree with the verb "profandar"? In spanish dict it only lists the verb profanar and not as an adjective.

Answer 1

It is because in that sentence, it is being used as the past participle in a passive verb phrase. When a past participle (-ado/-ido words) is used with "ser" or "estar", it has to match in number and gender just like an adjective.

Answer 2

As mentioned we have two verb tense/construction going on at the same time.

estar+gerundio of Ser (progressive tense) and Ser+pp (passive voice)=passive progressive tense

The requirement that the pp has to match the subject/object in gender and number has to due with how the passive voice is formed and nothing to do with the fact that Ser is in a progressive tense.

Answer 3

Here is a discussion: link text

That includes this:

The past participle in a passive voice sentence would be the main verb in an active voice sentence. Because the past participle follows the verb ser, it is technically acting like an adjective. Therefore, you must change the ending of the past participle to match the noun it modifies, which is always the subject of a passive voice sentence (placed in front of ser).

Answer 4

Profanado is the past participle of the verb profanar (desecrate), but in this case it's being used as an adjective. As an adjective, profanado has to agree with tumbas, so it becomes profanadas.

ah snap - but you put it so pretty! je je :) - Kiwi-Girl, Dec 15, 2011

Answer 5

If I have it right (je je) It's the past participle 'profanado' which can be used as an adjective as well but when it does it must be adapted to match the gender and number of the noun it modifies; in your case - las tumbas - fem, plural = profanadas, voilá!

(ooops) when it 'is' - Kiwi-Girl, Dec 15, 2011

profanadas - 0074b507, Dec 15, 2011

Answer 6

Profanar , to profane,to desecrate (sacred place),to violate(tomb,grave)