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Spanish Reflexive verbs

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Q: Tengo que (cepillarse, lavarse)las manos. My answer was me lavo but the answer was lavarme. I'm confused when to use each of them...

11024 views
updated Dec 15, 2011
posted by kumin

4 Answers

4
votes

After "tengo que", which means "I have to", you will use the infinitive of the verb.

Tengo que comer - I have to eat.

When the infinitive is reflexive, you match the pronoun:

Tengo que lavarme las manos - I have to wash my hands.

Tengo que irme - I have to leave.

Tengo que levantarme - I have to get up.

The same when talking to someone else:

Tienes que irte - you have to go.

Tienes que levantarte - you have to get up.

Or when talking about "us":

Tenemos que irnos - we have to go.

Tenemos que levantarnos - we have to get up.

"Me lavo" could be used like this:

From "lavarse": Me lavo las manos - I was my hands.

From "irse": Me voy - I'm going/I'm leaving.

updated Dec 14, 2011
edited by Tosh
posted by Tosh
buena respuesta:) - 00494d19, Dec 14, 2011
de acuerdo - Izanoni1, Dec 14, 2011
I think strictly speaking irse is not a reflexive verb - billygoat, Dec 14, 2011
¿Por qué no? Irse = to take oneself. - Tosh, Dec 14, 2011
Y, ¡gracias! - Tosh, Dec 14, 2011
Tosh, its pronominal (ie uses reflexive pronouns) but it is not actually a reflexive verb. Hey, mate, lets not go there - i'll leave the arguments to the grammarians - great answer by the way! - billygoat, Dec 14, 2011
Lol... buena idea! - Tosh, Dec 14, 2011
3
votes

The phrase "tengo que" is a somewhat formulaic phrase used to imply obligation. The verb that follows generally occurs in its infinitive form, i.e. "lavar."

It is very much analogous to the way in which we use (in English) the expression "I have to do something." For example, we would never complete either expression with a conjugated verb:

?I have I wash to wash my hands.
?Tengo que me lavo lavarme las manos.

In this case placement of the object pronoun can follow two patterns.

(1). It can be placed at the beginning of the entire verb phrase Me tengo que lavar las manos
(2). It can be attached to the end of the infinitive Tengo que lavarme las manos

Choice of placement is a matter of stylistic preference and has no overall impact on the meaning of the expression.

updated Dec 14, 2011
edited by Izanoni1
posted by Izanoni1
1
vote

billygoat: I think strictly speaking irse is not a reflexive verb
Tosh: ¿Por qué no? Irse = to take oneself.
billygoat: Tosh, its pronominal (ie uses reflexive pronouns) but it is not actually a reflexive verb. Hey, mate, lets not go there - i'll leave the arguments to the grammarians - great answer by the way!

Speaking of grammarians, you might enjoy this reference article on the differences between ir and irse. It is a compilation (collected by Moe) of thoughts that Lazarus has had over the years on the subject and includes the following tidbit:

"Irse" is an idiomatic pronominal verb. While "irse" shares the reflexive pronouns, me, te, se, nos, os, and se, it is not a reflexive verb

Here's the link: SpanishDict Reference Article: Ir vs. Irse

You might also try searching previous threads on the subject where you can find such opinions as follows (again, from Lazarus):

A good starting point would be to think of them as separate verb, because calling "irse" a reflexive verb is misleading and confusing unless you have an deep knowledge of ancient Indo-European grammars and how they have evolved over the last 3 or 4 millennia, so you can connect this "se" with the behaviour of the verb, and even then, you need the adequate information to start with.The usual interpretation of reflexive -especially using English as a reference- not only doesn't help, but it is counter-productive.

updated Dec 14, 2011
posted by Izanoni1
thank you Izanoni1. Yes, I have read these articles (actually many times lol) and also my good friend Cogu has hammered into me all about pronominal verbs. lol she would kill me if I got this one wrong! But I am not trying to score points here. - billygoat, Dec 14, 2011
I have already upset Feliz in a different thread. Tosh answer was excellent - I just thought I would make a very minor grammatical point. - - billygoat, Dec 14, 2011
1
vote

"Me lavo las manos" is saying "I wash my hands". "Tener que + infinitive" is "To have to+verb".

"Tengo que lavarme las manos." I have to wash my hands."

"Tiene que mandar un cheque." He/she/it has to send a check."

"Tenemos que ir de compras." "We have to go shopping."

The verb form of "tener" determines who is doing the action. Therefore, using the infinitive after "que" is never ambiguous.

updated Dec 14, 2011
posted by DonBigoteDeLaLancha