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How is "llevar de haber" used here?

How is "llevar de haber" used here?

4
votes

Having trouble understanding the use of "llevar" in the following context. Actually I am having trouble translating the whole phrase: "cuántos días llevaba de haber fallecido"

I think llevar is "to have been" but can't incorporate the "de haber fallecido" into the translation.

As always, would appreciate any insight.

2182 views
updated Dec 7, 2011
posted by cdunn3

7 Answers

7
votes

llevar is being used like ¿Hace cuántos días desde que...?

How many days has he been dead?

llevar + time expressions

Unlike hacer, llevar is used in all persons when used to describe time elapsed between events.

...between now and when he died.

Past equivalent of above llevar sentences
In the sentences below, time duration between two points in past are described. The same structures as above are used, but with conjugated verbs appearing in the imperfect indicative.

updated Dec 7, 2011
edited by 0074b507
posted by 0074b507
Excellent post Q :) - FELIZ77, Dec 5, 2011
2
votes

Cdunn3:

You do well not understading, the sentence is not correct and makes no sense in Spanish.

cuántos días llevaba de haber fallecido

should read:

Cuántos días llevaba fallecido

or

Cuántos días hacía que había fallecido

"llevaba de hacer" is a no-no

updated Dec 7, 2011
edited by cogumela
posted by cogumela
1
vote

How many days he had of to have past away? that's a literal translation

updated Dec 7, 2011
posted by ismarodri_uy
1
vote

I am looking for a more formal explanation of the use of "de haber" in this instance.

I think the issue is not "de haber" but "llevar de".

Look here

I think the phrase "llevaba de haber fallecido" is a grammatically incorrect version of "llevar de infinitive" treated in section 3, since haber is being used as an auxilliary rather than a true infinitive. In other words, "haber fallecido" is the verb and it is not an infinitive.

updated Dec 7, 2011
posted by lorenzo9
0
votes

Thanks to both ISMARODRI and COGUMELA; however, I am looking for a more formal explanation of the use of "de haber" in this instance. I mean to ask if it is an idiomatic phrase and what contribution it makes to the sentence; how would the sentence be different if it were left out.

Apologize for the persistence ;0)

updated Dec 6, 2011
posted by cdunn3
0
votes

Still would like an explanation with "de haber" since it doesn't meet the criteria outlined in the link.

updated Dec 5, 2011
posted by cdunn3
0
votes

Ah, very good. I had forgotten about that construct. Thanks for the link!

updated Dec 5, 2011
posted by cdunn3