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A ti o a tí?

A ti o a tí?

2
votes

I see that the "i" is accented in "a mí" but have seen variations with ti. Should it be "a ti" or "a tí." Why would it vary?

Gracias.

58470 views
updated NOV 17, 2014
posted by scratch2486

7 Answers

7
votes

In Spanish accents are sometimes used to differentiate the part of speech if there are 2 with the same spelling. Mi (without the accent) is the possessive pronoun meaning "my" in English. Mí (with the accent) is the pronoun used as the object of a preposition: a mí, de mí, para mí. "to me, of me, for me" in English.

Although it does occur in ti mismo, ti misma, the possessive pronoun is tu and so it is not the same in usage as mí and mi. Briefly then Señor Jack-OBrien is right.

Espero que me explique y te ayude.

updated DIC 17, 2013
posted by Jubilado
Bien explicado, muy claro. - Jeremias, DIC 2, 2011
Thanks for clearing up a lingering doubt!! - territurtle, DIC 2, 2011
6
votes

a ti

"ti" never has an accent.

updated DIC 2, 2011
posted by Jack-OBrien
Muy bien entonces. Gracias Jack. - scratch2486, DIC 2, 2011
No hay de que :~) - Jack-OBrien, DIC 2, 2011
4
votes

Hi Scratch,

The personal pronoun "ti" never carries an accent mark.

If you are looking for an authoritative source, you can always check with the Diccionario panhispánico de dudas (DPD) published by the Real Academia Española (RAE). The RAE itself is part of an association of 22 Academias worldwide charged with setting the standards for the Spanish language.

Here is a direct link to the page on pronouns: pronombres

If you scroll down the page to the table entitled "Formas de los pronombres personales tónicos," you will see that when it follows a preposition (término de preposición), the correct form for the second person (2.ª pers.) singular is "ti" and not "tí

Two exceptions to the use of "ti"
(1). When it follows the preposition "con," the specialized form "contigo" is used.
(2). In some areas, the pronoun "vos" is used rather than "ti" (for more information on this, you might look up the topic "voseo")

Why would it vary?

Because, just like with any language, people—even native speakers—are prone to making errors in regards to both grammar and orthography.

updated DIC 2, 2011
posted by Izanoni1
A vote for the valuable link, thanks! - Jubilado, DIC 2, 2011
3
votes

Whilst Collins shows there is a differentiation between "mi and with an accent" there appears no such differentiation for "ti"

updated DIC 2, 2011
posted by Eddy
1
vote

mm I am a spanish speaker I think it has accent.

Hablo español y creo que si lleva acento

updated NOV 17, 2014
posted by lucylucy2000
I'm sorry but native speakers aren't the best when it comes to written accents, it's the number one mistake all of my Spanish friends make and... that 'si' should be a 'sí'. ^3^; Sorry... - Suzanne_Romijnders, NOV 17, 2014
1
vote

a tí,- WITH the accent is used in lesson 2.3

updated DIC 2, 2011
posted by wendy_1
Hmmmm. Is there more to this answer then? Thanks, Wendy. - scratch2486, DIC 2, 2011
This is true. It's at timepoint 12:20 in the lesson 2.3 video. - pesta, DIC 2, 2011
It is just a typo... - Tosh, DIC 2, 2011
0
votes

I don't think 'tí' exists, because words of one syllable only wear an accent to differentiate two functions of an otherwise identical word. There's such a difference for mi (possesive) and mí (object pronoun). (This association is probably why people mix ti and tí up.) However, the possesive for the second person singular is 'tu', (another example! it differs in the same way from tú = subject pronoun) and 'ti' can thus only refer to the object pronoun, used mainly after a preposition such as 'a'. smile

updated NOV 17, 2014
edited by Suzanne_Romijnders
posted by Suzanne_Romijnders