Diirect and Indirect objects

Question

Is my thinking about le and lo in the following examples correct? The exampes are from Rosetta Stone. Si a dos le sumas seis la respuesta es ocho. The sentence translates if two is added to six. . . . . So the 'le' is used because of the 'to'

But Si a dos lo multiplicas por seis, la respuesta es doce. The sentence translates, if two is multiplied by six the answer is 12. So 'lo' is used because this is a direct object.

Answer 1

First, let's understand why the object pronoun is there. Whenever the direct or indirect object precedes the verb the "redundant" object pronoun is necessary. In these examples the "a dos" precedes the verb, so le/lo is necessary depending on whether the "a dos" is a direct or indirect object.

The redundant pronoun is required when the actual direct or indirect object precedes the verb.

Our sentences:

Si a dos le sumas seis....

add what?

six, the d.o.

to what?

two, the i.o.

since a dos is an i.o. then le.

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Si a dos lo multiplicas por seis

you multiply what?

two=d.o.

by what?

6=the i.o.

since a dos is a d.o. you use lo.

At least, that's my guess.

Thanks. . . .makes sense. - marcy6, Nov 26, 2011

Answer 2

since a dos is a d.o. you use lo.

Don't even listen to quentin say, hi, just guessing, he KNOWS

This is correct.