Using a past tense to describe a future action????

Question

"Hemos quedado mañana a la 13.00 en el Balcón"

This morning in class I just could not understand the above phrase. I questioned why use a past tense for a future action - but just could not understand the explanation.

The phrase was explained as being a group of people who met for a reunion, one person was missing and during the conversation someone suggested phoning that person and used the above phrase to say that the group would be meeting again tomorrow - or next week or when-ever.

I have copied the example from the board, not dictation, so I know I am not wrong.

I'm hoping a native speaker or Grammar expert is around at the moment.

Thanks for any help.

Answer 1

We have agreed to meet tomorrow. . .

The tenses are the same in English and the past tense refers to having agreed, not to the future time of the meeting.

Nice and quick and totally understandable, thanks so much. I wish my instruction was in English - it would save so many headaches. - caza, Nov 22, 2011

Answer 2

Lorenzo is right. Look at definition 7 of quedar

7. (citarse)

quedar (con alguien) -> to arrange to meet (somebody)

hemos quedado el lunes -> we've arranged to meet on Monday

he quedado con Juan esta noche -> I've arranged to meet Juan this evening

Thanks. So simple when you know - caza, Nov 22, 2011

Answer 3

AS explained by others it is not a past tense - it is the present perfect.

The present perfect is a tense that links the "past" to the present time.

It is constructed by using the "have" verb, "haber" in Spanish, with the past participle of the verb.

Examples

I have eaten - he comido

You have loved - She has kissed. etc,

Ha(s) amado - (ella) ha besado

Preterito perfecto and one of the first tenses taught as a past tense actually - your examples are surely past actions? - caza, Nov 22, 2011

Answer 4

Using the past tense for a future action can also happen in English.

Example: The modal verb Would is in the past tense.

"Would you be so kind as to drive me to the airport next Thursday? "

This is not correct - Would is a Modal - and Modals do not have tenses.because they are not verbs. t - ian-hill, Nov 22, 2011

Modals do not exist in Spanish. They are called Modal auxiliary verbs - but this is very mis-leading - ian-hill, Nov 22, 2011