Do indirect objects use "para"?

Question

I was taught that Indirect Objects, though they answer to/for whom, only are translated with "a ____" in Spanish.

Likewise, the phrase "para ____" indicates a prepositional phrase not an indirect object.

However, in the spanishdict.com video (2.3) on Indirect Objects, the phrase "para mi" was given as an example.

So now I am questioning myself. Let me give an example: in the sentence "Marta bought the shirt for Miguel" I was under the impression it should be translated "Elena le compro la camisa a Miguel". But, should it be "para Miguel" instead?

Answer 1

I think either would be acceptable, but as native speakers here have mentioned, if you use "Elena compró la camisa para mí" then the "redundant" pronoun me is not used.

Elena me compró la camisa a mí. (Ellen bought me the shirt).

Elena compró la camisa para mí.

Marta le compró la camisa a Miguel. (Martha bought Michael the shirt).

Marta compró la camisa para Miguel.

Wait for a native's confirmation.

Answer 2

According to what I've read, in this circumstance the phrase starting with "para" is always an "adjacente circunstancial", while the phrase starting with "a" can be an "objeto indirecto", "preposicional", "adjacente circunstancial", or "complemento de régimen". This will either make things clearer for you, or make you as confused as I am about Spanish grammar.