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Why is there a le in this sentence?

Why is there a le in this sentence?

6
votes

Hi. Well today, I was riding the bus and I saw a sign that read in Spanish "El conductor le abrirá la puerta". Now I know it means "The driver/operator will open the door." What I don't understand is why there is a le in the sentence. Why is it there? There is no indirect object in that sentence? Can somebody please explain to me why there is a le in that sentence and what it means if it means anything? Thanks!

2895 views
updated Nov 9, 2011
posted by zbanks17
Good question. - webdunce, Nov 9, 2011

7 Answers

4
votes

The conductor will open the door for you.

updated Nov 9, 2011
posted by lorenzo9
Oh!!! That makes sense. Can't believe I missed that! Thanks! - zbanks17, Nov 9, 2011
2
votes

It may seem more streamlined and economical to you, but NOT good English

There is nothing wrong with a verb having an indirect object pronoun in English as long as the direct object (if there is one) is not a pronoun. There is also nothing wrong with making it a subject pronoun in passive voice as long as the preposition is "to" when it is the object of a preposition rather than an object of the verb.

updated Nov 9, 2011
posted by lorenzo9
Thank you Lorenzo for the clear explanation. - pesta, Nov 9, 2011
2
votes

English and Spanish generally handle IO pronouns differently. Sometimes they handle them similarly, though.

I bought you the ring = I bought the ring for you.

Te compré el anillo = Compré el anillo para ti.

As a non-native, I do get a sense of "for you and you alone" when seeing "para usted" whereas using LE feels less "special" and more "general"...I don't know if that is a justified feeling, though.

So, they are basically equal, but it is definitely shorter to use LE instead of PARA USTED. Also, it might make it sound more institutional rather than kind of corny...like, if the sign said "para usted", then, upon opening the door, the conductor might say, "Now, I want you know that I'm going to open this door for YOU, but not for none of them other guys!"

Again, I don't know if natives would get that feeling or not. It could be they wouldn't blink twice at seeing it either way.

updated Nov 9, 2011
edited by webdunce
posted by webdunce
Spanish generally puts the pronouns *in front of the verb*...which English does not generally do. - webdunce, Nov 9, 2011
1
vote

So, they are basically equal, but it is definitely shorter to use LE instead of PARA USTED. Also, it might make it sound more institutional rather than kind of corny...like, if the sign said "para usted", then, upon opening the door, the conductor might say, "Now, I want you know that I'm going to open this door for YOU, but not for none of them other guys!"

I've been reading about this in Gramática de la lengua española by Emilio Alarcos Llarach, which is prominently labeled "Real Academia Española", and it seems to say something different. It says that using "para usted" instead of "a usted" = "le" means that you are using an "adyacente circunstancial" instead of an "objeto indirecto" and he devotes section 350 to discussing this effect of using "para". He then goes on to say that direct and indirect objects essentially modify the meaning of the verb phrase in the sentence, while "La presencia o la ausencia de los circunstanciales no modifica en esencia ni la estructura ni el sentido de una oración."

To me, this means that using "para usted" doesn't make the action more specific to you, but less--almost like opening the door had nothing to do with you and letting you through was an afterthought.

updated Nov 9, 2011
posted by lorenzo9
1
vote

Are they interchangeable or is there a difference between those two sentences?

That's just the way they say it.

If you want to learn Spanish, you learn what they prefer to say.

If you would rather learn to speak English using Spanish words, and sound like a foreigner, then continue to use the resulting clumsy expressions.

If you were teaching somebody to speak English, and taught them to say, "Give him the book" -- Suppose your student answered you back and suggested, Why don't they say "Give the book to him?". Isn't "Give him the book" more streamlined and economical?

Isn't conductor le abrirá more economical than adding "para usted" to the end?

updated Nov 9, 2011
posted by pesta
It may seem more streamlined and economical to you, but NOT good English - leeallen, Nov 9, 2011
Now I'm confused. Is "give him the book" not good English, and why? - pesta, Nov 9, 2011
1
vote

As explained here in section 5, when the indirect object is a pronoun, the le is required. Also, I don't think you can use para in that sentence.

a vs para

I think that in the sentence with "para usted" the sign would be saying that you are the recipient of the door being opened rather than having the door opened for you. In other words, having "you" be the object of preposition rather than the indirect object of the verb doesn't make sense in Spanish in this case.

updated Nov 9, 2011
edited by lorenzo9
posted by lorenzo9
Having the door opened for you makes you the recipient of the door being opened. Using the IO or para usted are two ways of saying the same thing. - webdunce, Nov 9, 2011
Lazarus more or less said that, in fact. He did indicate that one can have both an IO and a para clause if they are different people, though. - webdunce, Nov 9, 2011
What you can't do is mix the two. In other words, one can't say "El conductor le abrirá la puerta para usted". - webdunce, Nov 9, 2011
You know, thinking about it, I wonder if para usted is more like le + a usted than just le by itself...you know, puts an extra emphasis on the usted..a contrastive quality. - webdunce, Nov 9, 2011
I think para can be used only with certain verbs just as not all verbs can be used with an indirect object. - lorenzo9, Nov 9, 2011
Para usted makes usted the object of the preposition para rather than the indirect object of the verb. Both options are not always possible. - lorenzo9, Nov 9, 2011
0
votes

Follow up Question!

I now understand why there is a le in that sentence but I don't understand why the sign didn't say El conductor abrirá la puerta para usted.? Are they interchangeable or is there a difference between those two sentences?

updated Nov 9, 2011
edited by zbanks17
posted by zbanks17
Hi, In 'El conductor LE abrirá la puerta', the LE is replacing PARA USTED. It is called the Indirect Oject Complement. The 'puerta' is the direct object of the verb to open, and to whom is the indirect object. This is the 'para usted' bit, replaced by LE. - Jimenastrang, Nov 9, 2011