Esclavizar - violar?

Question

So our dictionary lists Esclavizar as to enslave and that makes sense. But the guys in a Nirvana forum, for the song "rape me" insist it means the same as violar. Is that true? They translated it, Esclavizame, mi amigo but it really doesn't mean that. Does it?

Gracias.

Answer 1

The nasty act of rape is in fact forcing someone to be a momentary sex slave, so along this line, "esclavizar" could be used and understood as "violar" although it´s not common usage.

Songs and poems have a lot of latitude with the meaning of their words.

I'm thinking they mean "corporate rape" like, the 99 percent in Wall Street. But the song doesn't mean that. - jeezzle, Oct 23, 2011

Answer 2

No, I don't think that they are related verbs.

esclavizar . 1. tr. Hacer esclavo a alguien, reducirlo a esclavitud.

1. tr. Tener a alguien muy sujeto e intensamente ocupado.

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I agree. Esclavizar is never the same as violar. The only relationship is that both are forceful infringements of human rights. - Gekkosan, Oct 24, 2011

Answer 3

Perhaps the original meaning of rape sheds a little more light on the matter.

Origin: 1250–1300; (v.) Middle English rapen < Anglo-French raper < Latin rapere to seize, carry off by force, plunder;

and from Wiki

From Latin rapi? (“to abduct or seize by force”).