La habrá.................
So at the end of Mad Max 3, there is not enough room for the plane to take off. So the guy says to the Road Warrior......
No hay pista suficiente.
And he says back to him.
La habrá.
Which I take to mean "there will be" but I would translate that as "Lo habrá". But he definitely says la there. Is it because "pista" is feminine? It seems like a case of "Lo estoy" and "Lo hago" and doesn't seem to be a case of masc. or feminine there. Thanks guys.
Gracias.
3 Answers
Hi there, Jeezz!
It's because "la pista" is a direct object, and direct objects in Spanish require gender&number; agreement.
Lo/la/los/las habrá
there will be it/them
Subject: -
Verb: habrá
Direct object: pista (--> la), pistas (--> las), tiempo (--> lo), momentos (--> los)
Lo estoy
I am (in a particular state)
Subject: Yo
Verb: estoy
Attribute: cansado (--> lo), enferma (--> lo)
Lo/la/los/las hago
I do it/them
Subject: Yo
Verb: hago
Direct object: el aterrizaje (-->lo), la colada (--> la), los deberes (--> los), las tareas (--> las)
No hay pista suficiente => Habrá pista suficiente => La habrá (LA stands for pista suficiente, which is feminine)
La pista no es suficiente => Será suficiente => Lo será (LO stands only for suficiente, which is neuter being an adjective)
Because haber means to have, it is likely to usually have a masculine or feminine DO as it will be dealing mostly with nouns...thus it could be lo or la before hay (but the lo would be masculine). Ser/Estar on the other hand, will usually be dealing with adjectives and thus usually be preceeded by the neuter lo.
I'd say it's because of la pista and is the difference between the (object) and it:
La = 'the' (pista) habrá will be (suficiente)
and
lo = 'it' hago I'm doing
Just guessing tho' 
