Why doesn't mandar follow the same conjugation pattern as dar?
2
votes
Conjugation pattern of mandar....why doesn't this follow the pattern of dar? Like obtener, prevenir, etc....they follow tener, venir, etc.
1024 views
updated Oct 13, 2011
posted by soyalba
3 Answers
1
vote
Partial explanation:
"prevenir" & "obtener" are derived from "venir" and "tener" (prefixes have been added). "mandar" and "dar", however, are unrelated.
updated Oct 13, 2011
posted by samdie
1
vote
The irregular -ir verbs follow a very simple pattern. The irregular -er verbs follow a slightly more complicated pattern. The -ar verbs don't follow a simple pattern: there are several examples of verbs with very similar spelling where one is regular and the other is not.
updated Oct 13, 2011
posted by lorenzo9
1
vote
Because the verb mandar is regular in all tenses and conjugations and dar is not. If a verb is irregular (dar), it's for a reason, and it's usually always pronunciation.
updated Oct 12, 2011
posted by Jack-OBrien
