Why isn't ¿Habla español? in the subjunctive?

Question

Shouldn't it be ¿Hable español usted? There is uncertainty that the person speaks Spanish. I know the subjunctive isn't all about uncertainty, but this seems to be a case for using the subjunctive.

Answer 1

By that logic every single question should be in the subjunctive.

exactly! lol - elainepnj, Oct 11, 2011

;) - cogumela, Oct 11, 2011

Jaja :) - GuitarWarrior, Oct 11, 2011

Answer 2

I know the subjunctive isn't all about uncertainty

Actually, subjunctive is not related to uncertainty.

There are thousands of examples for not giving credit to that rule

Mañana podría llover.

Quizás está enfadado.

A lo mejor viene mañana, ¿quién sabe?

:) - GuitarWarrior, Oct 11, 2011

Quizás esté. ;) - Goyo, Oct 11, 2011

I understand the reason for these, because in the first you are using the infinitive and in the second the gerund. - elainepnj, Oct 12, 2011

thousands of examples that do not follow that rule / thousands of counter-examples to that rule. - samdie, Oct 12, 2011

oh fun! :-) - elainepnj, Oct 12, 2011

Answer 3

¿Hay una persona aquí que hable español?

Is there a person here that speaks Spanish?

The adjective clause "...that speaks Spanish" modifies "person". The "person" may not exist, so how could the verb "speaks" be done? In spanish, we use the subjunctive when we ask this type of question, or if we answer it with "no". But if we say yes, the person does exist and "speaking" can be done.

Sí, hay una persona aquí que habla español.

Your question was much easier. ¿Habla usted español? No adjective clause. You are talking to the person and asking him/her if he/she speaks Spanish. Indicative should be used when asking this question, and when answering "yes" or "no".

Why do I have such a strong impuls to not read this kind of explaination?! It's like my brain shorts out. I'm going to print this and really get it into my head somehow. Thank you - elainepnj, Oct 12, 2011

It's easier for me when I remember that there are more reasons to use the subjunctive than just uncertainty, and that the indicative and imperative are also Spanish moods that have their own reasons for being used :) - GuitarWarrior, Oct 12, 2011

Answer 4

You would be right but in order to use subjunctive you need two clauses and and one them has to have a noun to use in this case

No creas :) - cogumela, Oct 11, 2011

Answer 5

BellaMargari said:

You would be right but in order to use subjunctive you need two clauses and and one them has to have a noun.

This is a good argument for me to learn more of the technical terms. I refer to a previous question I had on how important is is for me to stop glossing over them.

For some reason my eyes glaze over when I read "two clauses and one of them has to have a noun" I am so deficient in elementary grammar terms in English that I barely know what a clause is.

I think I need an English grammar book.

Answer 6

Rather than wondering about a very common expression, you might want to question the value of that "rule".

Answer 7

Que tengas buen dia senor/a. I just wanted to say that.