La pierna izquierda se le iba para un lado... IR?

Question

La pierna izquierda se le iba para un lado

His left leg tends to go to the side(?)

This is a sentence that I get but can't translate exactly. Could someone help me ho to use the verb?

I am guessing it is a proniminal?

como se me rompió y eso...

muchas gracias

Could you give more contect? Is teh leg fixed now? It sounds odd to say it 'used to go'. His leg swung wide, migh sound better? If it's in the past. - annierats, Oct 4, 2011

no it isn't fixed, it was permanent - dewclaw, Oct 4, 2011

Actually, in English, that doesn't matter, although, obviously, to the person, it matters greatly. - annierats, Oct 4, 2011

Answer 1

His left leg swung to one side.

Alternatively: His left leg tended to swing to one side.

To me, this sounds better in Englsih, that's all.

I make no comments on the Spanish version, which sounds fine to me.

Answer 2

If you are trying to translate that sentence exactly then I think ir should be in the present-tense. If go is in the present-tense then ir should be as well. I would say "Su pierna izquierda se va al lado." "His left leg goes to the side." I'm not 100% on the pronoun. I hate pronouns.

se is correct. - eddiemendez9, Oct 4, 2011

Answer 3

If you are trying to translate that sentence exactly then I think ir should be in the present-tense.

Huh?! And if this is an excerpt from "Recuedos de mi Niñez"? In English one would say "He used to ...". In Spanish the use of the imperfect tense (with similar intent) is customary.

You're correct but I still think my answer is correct. His leg tends to go to the left. There is nothing to suggest the past in this sentence. - eddiemendez9, Oct 4, 2011

Answer 4

His left leg swung to one side.

Alternatively: His left leg tended to swing to one side.

To me, this sounds better in Englsih, that's all.

Me too.

I make no comments on the Spanish version, which sounds fine to me.

Me too.

Yes, it is a pronominal case: Irse: Se iba para un lado. Se fue a dormir.

His left leg tends to go to the side(?)

I would say "tended" instead of "tends". Se le iba para un lado. (pretérito imperfecto)

I would say "tends" if the sentence were: Se le va para un lado. (presente).

oh ya, I kno it is tended, oops - dewclaw, Oct 4, 2011

know* thank you :P - dewclaw, Oct 4, 2011

You are wellcome, dewclaw. :) - LuisCache, Oct 4, 2011

Answer 5

Here is how I understand it .....

His left leg used to go/ was going to one side on him.

He couldn't control it, otherwise, it wouldn't have been that way and it's not known why it was so.

So the Se here is what I call no one's fault Se. The action happened accidentally or for unknown reason and he was the victim, hence the indirect object 'le'.

If that's what it really is, then it's another reason to love the Spanish language.

P.S. Para here sounds odd to me, shouldn't that be a, en or even de un lado? Can someone explain the use of para here, please?

his dad dropped him, so the reason is known.. I agree para is weird, thought it'd be por... hahaha thanks! - dewclaw, Oct 4, 2011

In my opinion "por" would be of better use here...but sometimes not everyone speaks or writes correctly not even in English! - drvicente, Oct 4, 2011

it is a novel... so I don't know. - dewclaw, Oct 4, 2011