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Indirect object

4
votes

I have started to get the hang on using the direct and indirect object pronoun. I have both seen the video and studied the reference section on this topic, but I still wonder if there is a rule on when to say "a/para mí, tí" etc in the end of a sentence, and when not to say it? Or is it up to the person who speaks to choose for himself?

Like, say if I have a gift for you, is it the same whether I say "Te lo tengo para tí" or "Te lo tengo"? If I use "te" in the first place, doesn't that indicate that I already am talking about "you", and don't have to specify it once more?

2403 views
updated Dec 29, 2012
posted by inridk

3 Answers

1
vote

Bump smile I trip over this from time to time...

updated Dec 29, 2012
posted by Goldie_Miel
1
vote

No indirect object with para or por.

Juan compró el regalo para María

Juan le compró el regalo a María.

Tengo un regalo para ti, this one is ok

Lo tengo para ti, sounds good to me.

Te lo tengo? Tengo un regalo a ti. I'm not sure if that would make sense. Let's wait for the experts. wink

updated Oct 3, 2011
posted by SpanishPal
1
vote

Hi,

It sure seems like you are getting the hang of it. So, you can add the indirect object in addition to the I.O. pronoun for emphasis or clarification.

Me lo dio. He gave it to me.

A mí lo dio. He gave it to me!

Se lo di. I gave it to him, her or it. (Le becomes se to avoid having two object pronouns beginning with l following one another.)

Se lo di a ella. I gave it to her.

updated Oct 3, 2011
edited by Jeremias
posted by Jeremias