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Spanish and plural possesive nouns

Spanish and plural possesive nouns

1
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Is there such a thing, in Spanish?
I recently posted an answer to the English word of the day "cut". I wanted to say "I cut my dogs' hair myself." While trying to figure out how to translate this to Spanish, I began to wonder what is done in Spanish when you have a situation like this, where I am saying that I have more than one dog and I'm talking about something of theirs i.e. dogs'. I looked in the reference section of SP, but I can't find anything on this subject.

Deanski and Spanish Pal gave me some help with correcting my answer on that thread.. but I'm still confused (which is not surprising)!

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updated Oct 1, 2011
posted by Gillygaloo

1 Answer

3
votes

In English your problem stems from where you are placing the apostrophe. Dogs' is inferring more than one dog. See below.

the boy's ball (one boy)

the boys' ball (two or more boys)

As far as I am aware Spanish avoids this apostrophe nonsense.

Me corté el pelo de mi perro - One dog

Me corté el pelo de mis perros - More than one dog

updated Oct 1, 2011
edited by Eddy
posted by Eddy
Oh, that's good! Thanks! - Gillygaloo, Oct 1, 2011