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aguda, grave, esdrújula, or sobresdrújula vs. N O S E rule

aguda, grave, esdrújula, or sobresdrújula vs. N O S E rule

0
votes

All the Spanish books I've picked up have had a chapter on this and I've always skipped them. I just got to that lesson with Paralee and while she makes it easy to understand it's still hard to remember.

I'm just asking if it's necessary to learn these terms and if there is any practical advantage to it. Should I be making 4 posters, one for each word, and adding new words to each poster as I come across them?

Is it enough to say the N O S E rule, which I think is from Michel Thomas:

All words that end in N, S, or a vowel have the stress on the penultimate syllable. All other words have the stress on the last syllable. Any word which breaks this rule has a tilde over its stressed syllable.

(there can also be tildes to top two vowels from forming dipthongs or to differenciate between two otherwide identical words like se and sé)

Is this an over-simplification?

7290 views
updated Sep 25, 2011
edited by rabbitwho
posted by rabbitwho
Edited my mistake about the rule, thanks to drvincete for pointing it out. - rabbitwho, Sep 14, 2011
no problem that is why we are here to support one another...good luck and enjoy! - drvicente, Sep 15, 2011

4 Answers

2
votes

Boy you make it REALLY confusing...it's not that serious and you half way got it...just remember that a word that ends in a vowel, an N or an S the stress falls on the second to the last syllable. If a word ends in any consonant other than N or S the stress falls on the last syllable. All exceptions to this rule must carry a written accent! That's it! Examples: 1. repitan llamas hola 2. español usted regular 3. Bogotá lápiz teléfono

updated Sep 25, 2011
posted by drvicente
K i got that bit mixed up heh! But you're saying the rules are as simple as that and I don't need the extra stuff, that makes me happy! - rabbitwho, Sep 14, 2011
1
vote

Rabbit is right; a tilde is any accent mark. However, many commonly understand it as the snake over the n.

updated Sep 25, 2011
posted by Beatrice-Codder
Cool that's good to know, thanks. - rabbitwho, Sep 14, 2011
Thanks for the insight Bea...my instructor who was Latino always separated the two! - drvicente, Sep 25, 2011
1
vote

It's because of the NOSE rule that the tilde drops off when certain words become plural:

marrón... marrones

"marrón" needs a tilde because it defies the NOSE rule. Without the tilde, it would be pronounced like "márron".

"marrones" doesn't need a tilde because it ends in an S, so the accent is already over the "o". You don't need to write it as "marrónes" to get the proper pronunciation.

updated Sep 15, 2011
posted by Tosh
Test - Tosh, Sep 15, 2011
0
votes

and its not a tilde its a written accent...tilde is different that's the little snake over the n Hopefully my previous post will simplify your confusion..LOL!

updated Sep 25, 2011
posted by drvicente
Nope, it is a tilde. Tilde: Marca gráfica que se superscribe a una letra para indicar una variación en el sonido que representa - rabbitwho, Sep 14, 2011
Thanks for posting this! Very interesting and good looking out! - drvicente, Sep 25, 2011