¿Te has hecho la cama? Why te.

Question

¿Te has hecho la cama?

¿Has hecho la cama? - me suena mejor,

Te..........¿Tiene algún caso? -----------> for yourself? Or just emphasis?

Gracias....

Answer 1

In this case the difference is clear, both sentences are correct:

¿Te has hecho la cama?

Have you made your bed?

¿Has hecho la cama? - me suena mejor,

Have you made THE bed?

However, if we are talking directly to the person, we would use the second phrase, as then it would be clear which bed we are talking about.

Answer 2

I hate to suggest that dative of interest explanation that is often alluded to here because I don't understand exactly what it is beyond that it shows who is effected by the action of the verb and often involves a i.o.p. (Se me olivdaron las llaves.) Is the te included to tell us that you have made the bed for yourself (or your bed) rather than you made someone else's bed?

I was thinking "for yourself" like - "Hazme la cama" = make my bed. Hazte la cama = make your bed. BUT haz la cama also means make your bed. - jeezzle, Aug 31, 2011

or just 'make the bed' so I think what Quentin is getting at is that it could be a way to show that it's your bed that you need to be making not grandma's :) - Kiwi-Girl, Sep 1, 2011

Yeah, it keeps you from having to say "Has hecho TU cama" because any Spaniard worth his salt would walk across a bed of hot coals rather than use a possessive pronoun. - webdunce, Sep 1, 2011

Actually, now that I think of it, "Has hecho la cama" would probably have a default meaning of "Have you made your bed?" It's probably just a variation. A different way to say the same thing. Maybe slightly emphatic? - webdunce, Sep 1, 2011

Answer 3

I agree with you

Although you sure you didn't miss a couple of words like: ¿te has hecho pipi en la cama? je je