Home
Q&A
"Could have"

"Could have"

3
votes

Is this how you say "You could have said 'no'." ?

Podrías haber dicho 'no'.

2051 views
updated Aug 22, 2011
posted by Anna

3 Answers

4
votes

That's probably not incorrect, but I would normally say:

Podrías haber dicho que no.

updated Aug 22, 2011
posted by gintar77
Why do we need the "que" gintar ? - ian-hill, Aug 22, 2011
It is definitely not incorrect, but I would have used "que" too. - lazarus1907, Aug 22, 2011
As Lazarus says, it's not required. But I cannot explain exactly why it's normally said that way. Perhaps Lazarus can? - gintar77, Aug 22, 2011
Same occurs with "dir que sí". - gintar77, Aug 22, 2011
Thank you! - Anna, Aug 22, 2011
that should have been "decir" que sí :-/ - gintar77, Aug 22, 2011
2
votes

Why do we need the "que" gintar ?

It's the difference between a direct and an indirect quote.

updated Aug 22, 2011
posted by samdie
1
vote

But I cannot explain exactly why it's normally said that way. Perhaps Lazarus can?

As Sam says, one is direct and another one indirect. People normally say "He said he wanted to sleep" (indirect style) more often than "He said: 'I want to sleep'" (direct style). The same happens with this sentence: people normally say "Podrías haber dicho que no [quieres / lo vas a hacer /... whatever]" (indirect style) rather than "Podrías haber dicho 'no'" (direct style). The peculiarity of using "que" (which is omitted in English) and leaving that "no" alone, with the rest of the sentence implicit is common in Spanish, but not in English.

updated Aug 22, 2011
posted by lazarus1907