How Spanish pronouns work

Question

Ok, I recently asked a question about the way things are expressed in Spanish. I don't see a way to edit that question, so I decided to just make a new question(I'm sorry if that annoys anyone).

It was explained to me that when you use pronouns like "le, lo, la, te, los, las" etc, it is saying "to him/her, to you", etc. So, here's my question:

If this is true, then I could properly reword "te amo" with "te tengo amor"(meaning, "to you I have love"), and it would mean the same thing?

If I'm incorrect, then can someone PLEASE explain to me how these pronouns work?

Answer 1

If this is true, then I could properly reword "te amo" with "te tengo amor"(meaning, "to you I have love"), and it would mean the same thing?

Yes, you can. In English, you can also say "I have love for you" instead of "I love you".

That would be "tengo amor para ti" - ArchLich, Aug 12, 2011

Lazarus, is "para ti, tengo amor" wrong? - SonrisaDelSol, Aug 12, 2011

I don't this it's wrong, it's just weird/uncommon to say it that way. - ArchLich, Aug 12, 2011

think* - ArchLich, Aug 12, 2011

Oh, didn't know that. Thank you, Arch. - SonrisaDelSol, Aug 12, 2011

Answer 2

Hola!

Hmm...I don't think "to you, I have love" makes sense in English.

Maybe if you said "for you, I have love", but that's even pushing it a little. Please, anyone correct me if I'm wrong, but "for you, I have love" would be written as "para ti, tengo amor para ti".

tengo amor para ti - ArchLich, Aug 12, 2011

Do you also find "For you I have nothing but affection." strange? - samdie, Aug 13, 2011