Why is the imperfect used in this sentence?

Question

In a recent exercise, we were given the task of converting sentence to passive form with "se". The prompt was as follows: "Las bebidas eran servidas en el jardín por 10 años." I responded as follows: "Se servieron las bebidas en el jardín por 10 años." The correct response is, "Se servían las bebidas en el jardín por 10 años." Why is the imperfect used instead of the preterit in this case?

I changed your title to match your question. This way, you will most likely receive some more responses. - SonrisaDelSol, Aug 6, 2011

Answer 1

Also, you could have taken your cue from eran servidas, which is in the imperfect. The preterit would have been fueron servidas.

Answer 2

The Imperfect tense describes actions that were completed more than once in the past, and the Preterite tense describes a one time completed action. Since this action occurred for 10 years, the Imperfect tense is used.

Answer 3

The correct response is, "Se servían las bebidas en el jardín por 10 años." Why is the imperfect used instead of the preterit in this case?

The correct response??? Both past tenses are correct here!! Preterite contemplates the whole period and every single drink (if such thing is possible), while imperfect gives no clues about the time or the frequency (it is more "hazy"), even though we know the period in which it happened. Besides the subtle difference in perspective, both pretty much say the same thing.

"Las bebidas eran servidas en el jardín por 10 años." sounds so weird, by the way.

Answer 4

The imperfect is used to express a past habit, which is the case here.

The habit is no longer ongoing. In English, we say "Drinks used to be served ..." If it is still ongoing, we'd say "Se han servido las bebidas..." - gintar77, Aug 6, 2011

Then I'll remove that part again -.- - S1r_Wakka, Aug 6, 2011