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Find the grammar error!

Find the grammar error!

4
votes

This introductory paragraph was taken from Monday morning's Washington Post newspaper. Can you find the grammar error?

"Assuming no hiccups in the House -- and that might be a big assumption -- we’ve got a deal. The deficit-reduction side includes $1 trillion in cuts now, $1.5 trillion (or more) in deficit reduction later, and a vote on a balanced budget amendment. Meanwhile, it raises the debt ceiling by $900 billion immediately, and either $1.5 trillion (if the second deficit reduction package or a balanced budget amendment passes) or $1.2 trillion (if neither pass) later. Either way, the Treasury should have plenty of borrowing authority to get us to 2013."

3835 views
updated Aug 14, 2011
posted by Sabor
Following on from Eddy's recent point if Eddy is correct which I believe he is, then we should have been looking for punctuation errors than than grammar errors. Hyphens and commas etc to be precise, are part of punctuation - FELIZ77, Aug 1, 2011
grammar is more to do with sentence construction, verbs definite articles etc..... - FELIZ77, Aug 1, 2011

10 Answers

3
votes

(if neither pass)

It should be passes, right? smile

updated Aug 1, 2011
posted by SonrisaDelSol
The writer used "or" both inclusively *and* exclusively in the same sentence. Worse yet, the contrasting usage was in a parenthetical phrase, thereby really muddling things up for the reader! - territurtle, Aug 1, 2011
My vote is for this answer. Neither is singular and will require a singular, third person verb, which pass is not (unless they are using subjunctive, which wouldn't be correct to do here anyway). - webdunce, Aug 1, 2011
That said, I'm apt to make errors like this in my own writing and speaking. - webdunce, Aug 1, 2011
Sonrisa, ¡tienes razón! Era el primer error que lo vi. - Sabor, Aug 1, 2011
Yay! Thanks, Sabor :D - SonrisaDelSol, Aug 1, 2011
In English from England I am sure we would say if neither (ie neither of these) pass not passes - FELIZ77, Aug 1, 2011
I may be wrong by English standards or this maybe simply a difference between English from England and USA - FELIZ77, Aug 1, 2011
3
votes

If I were a copy editor, I see four things I would have changed. cool hmm

However, I would prefer SD members do not see just how pedantic I can be.

updated Aug 14, 2011
posted by territurtle
2
votes

If we take what Web says about the use of ''got'' in his most recent post to be true, and it holds true as far as I am concerned, then where exactly is the grammatical error, please?

This is the only error I could possibly see. Please remember that there are expressions that are acceptable in USA that we would not use in England and maybe grammatical structures that would not not be acceptable in both countries.

Unless we are splitting hairs (ie: arguing over trivial details) here , even I as a native could not see where the error is in this passage after reading it several through times. If we were to discount ken's post

''we’ve got a deal.

We have a deal.'' what other mistakes are there left?

if the second deficit reduction package or a balanced budget amendment passes) is correct

(if neither pass) This is also correct Neither here is short for if neither of these things pass You would not say passes here or pass in teh example above

Please someone point out the grammatical error before I tear out my hair hehehe

updated Aug 1, 2011
edited by FELIZ77
posted by FELIZ77
Feliz, your hair looks so nice, please take good care of it :). You may be correct about "neither" in the UK not taking the singular verb as it does in the US. If so, I apologize to you. - Sabor, Aug 1, 2011
Sabor I was saying/meaning that neither refers to two things and therefore takes the singular:verb form:: \\pass '' By contrast words that are singular eg bill would take the plural verb form: as in, '' I will be amazed! if this this bill passES - FELIZ77, Aug 1, 2011
2
votes

Commas before the and's.

Comma should be inserted after either 1.5 trillion and after Passes)

Comma should be inserted after either 1.2 trillion and after Pass)

Deficit Reduction. One has a hyphen and one doesn't.

updated Aug 1, 2011
edited by Eddy
posted by Eddy
You rock, Eddy! - territurtle, Aug 1, 2011
ah these are allpunctuation points that Eddy has raised rather than points of grammar I didn't realize that we were looking at such minutiae. You were very clever to spot them Eddy I was looking for bigger mistakes lol - FELIZ77, Aug 1, 2011
Eddy, The comma in your first point is argued about by ivory-tower types :). Your second two points are valid but the commas are not necessary for clarity because the parenthetical expressions interrupt the flow anyway. - Sabor, Aug 1, 2011
"Deficit-reduction" functions as an adjective modifying one part of the agreement, "Deficit reduction" [without hyphen] functions as a noun, *reduction*, modified by *deficit* which tells what is being reduced. - Sabor, Aug 1, 2011
Yes, Eddy, you rock. What an eagle-eye :) - Sabor, Aug 1, 2011
2
votes

"and either $1.5 trillion" should be "to either $1.5 trillion"

updated Aug 1, 2011
posted by Rikko
Bingo! - territurtle, Aug 1, 2011
Rikko, If you remove the parenthetical expressions from that sentence, you will have : it raises the debt ceiling by $900 billion immediately, and either $1.5 trillion or $1.2 trillion later. - Sabor, Aug 1, 2011
"And" is necessary because there will be two raises in the ceiling, one now "and" another later :) - Sabor, Aug 1, 2011
2
votes

we’ve got a deal.

. We have a deal.

Why? you can use have with got in the same meaning as we have. Why is this here incorrect?

I hear on tv all the time: you've got yourself a deal.

Hmmmmm, me lo cuenten, porfaraspberry

updated Aug 1, 2011
posted by 00494d19
Because they don't use correct English on TV either. It died with Walter Cronkite. - territurtle, Aug 1, 2011
well, I am not implying that waht you hear on tv is necessarily correct, jeje, but I mean....why should this be incorrect? I don't see the reason - 00494d19, Aug 1, 2011
"Have got" is included in some dictionaries as proper usage, and it has been considered proper English for centuries. - lorenzo9, Aug 1, 2011
Written language normally requires a greater adherence to grammatical rules than spoken language which is often more flexible are changes faster in its form . ''We have a deal '' is the correct grammatical form but we've got a deal is more common - FELIZ77, Aug 1, 2011
So is "have gotten." The choice of which to use in a given context is the question. - territurtle, Aug 1, 2011
on the street in street language. I guess TV presenters are trying to identify with the ordinary man in the streat and make a connection with their viewers so making their programmes more appealing the general public. - FELIZ77, Aug 1, 2011
Heidita is correct :) - Sabor, Aug 1, 2011
2
votes

we’ve got a deal.

. We have a deal.

updated Aug 1, 2011
posted by 00d7cd75
Bingo! - territurtle, Aug 1, 2011
I am not a grammar expert by any means - I was taught that my example is correct even though the majority of people (myself included) use the other. I will let the experts argue the point. - 00d7cd75, Aug 1, 2011
2
votes

There is also a punctuation error: "--" shouldn't have spaces on either side.

updated Aug 1, 2011
posted by lorenzo9
Yeah, but who follows that old typesetting rule anymore? I've completely abandoned the fight. :-( - territurtle, Aug 1, 2011
1
vote

"Assuming no hiccups in the House -- and that might be a big assumption -- we’ve got a deal. The deficit-reduction side includes $1 trillion in cuts now, $1.5 trillion (or more) in deficit reduction later, and a vote on a balanced budget amendment. Meanwhile, it raises the debt ceiling by $900 billion immediately, and either $1.5 trillion (if the second deficit reduction package or a balanced budget amendment passes) or $1.2 trillion (if neither pass) later. Either way, the Treasury should have plenty of borrowing authority to get us to 2013."

This is really difficult, I will assume, without peeking at the other answers, that it should be borrowed.

If it has something to do with the numbers, well, tough, I haven't got a clue, jeje

updated Aug 1, 2011
posted by 00494d19
Dang! Our usage of gerunds in English can really muddle things up for someone who's native language is rational! - territurtle, Aug 1, 2011
Borrowed authority = authority that has been borrowed (not impossible, but rather unusual)... borrowing authority = authority to borrow (i.e., borrowing authority is used correct for this case). - webdunce, Aug 1, 2011
Examples that might help: Singing ability = ability to sing. Mathematical ability = ability to learn mathematics. Borrowing authority = authority to borrow. - Sabor, Aug 1, 2011
My own typo in prior comment...should be: "is used correctly." - webdunce, Aug 1, 2011
1
vote

Have got = have gotten (got is a legitimate past participle and is equal to gotten).

Since got is a valid alternative past participle for get (the other being gotten), have got is a legitimate conjugation of the verb "to get, and, therefore, cannot be a grammatical error. It might be considered poor style by some. Some might say it's redundant when simply saying "have" will do. I say, it has a very nice emphatic sound to it. It probably should be avoided in highly formal writing or for any paper that will be turned into a professor who is known to mark off for its use.

updated Aug 1, 2011
edited by webdunce
posted by webdunce
I gree WEb :) What do you mean by ''to mark of for it's use, please? This last part of your sentence does not make sense to me - FELIZ77, Aug 1, 2011
... for its *usage* .... See http://www.drgrammar.org/frequently-asked-questions#111, and for fun: http://www-personal.umich.edu/~jlawler/aue/gotten.html. Also note the British are still at war with the "colonies" (i.e., America) on this one. ;-) - territurtle, Aug 1, 2011
Good thinking, Web :) - Sabor, Aug 1, 2011
@feliz, it was a type...should be "mark off" - webdunce, Aug 1, 2011
*typo - webdunce, Aug 1, 2011