Indirect object pronouns?
I have heard that it is more common to place a direct object pronoun after a verb then before it.
For example its more common to say:
Yo no quiero comerlos aqui.
Instead of: Yo no los quiero comer aqui.
Question: Does anyone know if there is any if at least subtle difference between using the two different versions in Spanish and the ideas you are trying to express. In other words, is one more formal then the other, is one versions just used more in different countries. Does placing the pronoun first give it emphasis perhaps? Or is it completely arbitrary which version you decide to use. I suspect that it just gives it emphasis.
5 Answers
I´ve never thought about it until just now, but there seems to be a very subtle difference in emphasis depending on the placement of the pronoun.
"no quiero comerlos aqui." more emphasis on eating.
"no los quiero comer aqui." more emphasis on the things being eaten.
But the difference is very slight.
I was thinking of a hypothetical situation. Suppose your walking down the street and someone approaches you wanting to sell you something. After saying no, the man keeps asking and asking. So in order to add more emphasis to the pronoun that you do not want to buy you would attach the direct object pronoun before the verb.
The dialogue would play out like this:
Seller: Hola quieres comprar estas frutas?
You: No gracias, ya he comido.
Seller: Compralas, Compralas por favor
You: No quiero comprarlas!
Seller: Compra, Compra
You: Señor, no las quiero comprar.
------So in this example, you added emphasis to the pronoun representing fruit which you really dont want to buy
The rule is that it is more common to put a direct object pronoun after an infinitive or gerund form of the verb (not the verb in general), as in all other cases the d.o. must precede the verb.
I don't think this varies so much with country. When I have asked spanish speakers about the difference, they just shrugged their shoulders and said, well you can do either.
My conclusion is it doesn't matter much, but it's more common as you pointed out to append the d.o. to these forms. Maybe it's just because it rolls off the tongue better.
I'm curious to hear some other answers.
The rule is that it is more common to put a direct object pronoun after an infinitive or gerund form of the verb (not the verb in general), as in all other cases the d.o. must precede the verb.
Are you overlooking the imperative mood where the object pronoun must follow the verb if it is an affirmative command.
Ábrelo. [tú]
Ábralo. [usted]
Of course, this only applies to situations in which there are two verbs thereby giving you a choice of where to place the pronoun.
The same is true for direct object pronouns.
No queries llevarme?
No me queries llevar?
