I didn't see him?
¡Hola! I was just searching for something and I saw this translation:
No lo vi : I didn't see him
Shouldn't it be "No le vi"? Am I wrong in saying that "him" is an INDIRECT object, and so should be "le" instead of "lo"? If I'm wrong please give examples. It's always much easier to understand with examples 
Muchos gracias
3 Answers
It is a direct object, so it's correct to say "no lo vi." That doesn't mean to say you won't hear "no le vi" used, in Spain especially. Either way, people will understand what you mean, but if you want to be correct universally, stick to "no lo vi."
Hola Chupacabra! Bienvenido al foro. Jeje, a bloodsucker! At least you don't sparkle. Or do you?
It is indeed "No lo vi" since ver here is transitive, that is, the object is directly acted upon by the verb. You see something, you see someone, he saw him, she saw what happened.
Espero que esto te sirva.
He would be the direct object as he received the action of the verb - 'he' was 'seen' so 'lo' would be correct.
When it comes to a male person however there is what is called leísmo which allows for you to use le. This wouldn't work however if you saw 'her' you would have to use 'la'. (If my understanding if correct that is so a second opinion would probably be a good idea je je)
