Una pregunta acerca de mañana mismo

Question

En el pasaje siguiente, de la biblia versión NVI, ¿estoy entendimiento correctamente las palabras "mañana mismo lo oirá usted"?

¿Puede ser algo así "tomorrow actually you will hear him"?

Aquí está el versículo:

Hechos 25:22 —A mí también me gustaría oír a ese hombre —le dijo Agripa a Festo. —Pues mañana mismo lo oirá usted —le contestó Festo.

Gracias por sus comentarios.

Answer 1

I believe it is implying "that very day".

On the radio, I always hear them say (especially in the commercials) "¡Hoy mismo!" to signify "Today!" or "Right now!"

That passage talks about how King Agripa wanted to listen to what Paul had to say. Governor Felix used the "mismo" to put emphasis on the fact that it will happen.

I remember when I used to listed to an audio Bible (that I gave away and dearly miss), the speaker said something along the lines of "...and tomorrow you WILL hear him!"

Good answer! - gintar77, Jun 24, 2011

Thank you. :-) - danrivera, Jun 24, 2011

Excelent answer. - LuisCache, Jun 24, 2011

Answer 2

I believe it is implying "that very day".

I don't see a suitable way to put "that very day" into an English translation. None of the English translations that I have emphasize it this way, however, the KJV does use "thou shalt" which is putting an emphasis on "you will" (I think). Of the five Spanish versions I have, only one uses this particular emphasis.

That passage talks about how King Agripa wanted to listen to what Paul had to say. >Governor Felix used the "mismo" to put emphasis on the fact that it will happen.

I'm not sure if Felix used "mismo" or not :~) I just cannot find this emphasis in the Greek and I was wondering how it got put together this way. I have seen mañana mismo translated as "actually, tomorrow......." which kind of has the same implication, at least in my mind.

I remember when I used to listed to an audio Bible (that I gave away and dearly miss), the >speaker said something along the lines of "...and tomorrow you WILL hear him!"

Since the NVI new testament was translated from the Greek and not from English, my interest was peaked when I ran across this. If you happen to know how this emphasis was derived from the Greek I would love to hear it. Thanks so much for your comments!

Lol @ the Felix using "mismo"... I actually thought about that in later proofreading, but chose not to augment it. My Greek is nearly nill, so I cannot comment on the translated text, but it would seem that some translators interpreted the phrase as so.. - danrivera, Jun 24, 2011

Thank you :~) I was jabbing a bit with the Felix comment, hehe. - Jack-OBrien, Jun 24, 2011

Answer 3

Maybe in this case the emphasis is just a license taken by the translator to the Spanish,and it is not in the original.

Excellent point. Thank you for your reponse! I've not thought so much about 'mismo/a' being an emphasis but that certainly can change things.

Answer 4

I just like to add that the adjective mismo, misma is used in Spanish to emphasize some pronouns and adverbs, like in: yo mismo, ella misma, ahora mismo, hoy mismo, mañana mismo.... meaning: right now, in this very moment, today, etc.

Maybe in this case the emphasis is just a license taken by the translator to the Spanish,and it is not in the original.