Do we say "Síganme" or "Me sígan"?

Question

I stumbled across a phrase in a restaurant phrasebook. The hostess says, "Follow me," translated as "Síganme." However, when I learn the indirect-object pronouns, the me (pronoun) generally precedes the sígan (verb). I wonder why that is.

Thanks for helping me

Answer 1

To expand on Zander's explanation, the reflexive or object pronoun is always attached to the affirmative command whether it is a formal or informal command. The pronoun precedes the verb when the command is negative (formal and informal).

Sígame (usted)

Sígueme (tú)

No me siga (usted)

No me sigas. (tú)

:) - FELIZ77, Jun 18, 2011

Answer 2

¡Síganme! it's correct. But if you are the only person "following" to the hostess, she will say "sígame".

Answer 3

You might want to watch the videos on this site that discuss the imperative. They start with http://www.spanishdict.com/learn/show/29

The imperative (commands) is different depending on whether you are commanding a friend (informal) or not (formal). In addition, one must learn the cultural norms for using informal vs. formal forms in the culture in which on is operating. Fun, right?

Answer 4

gato metralleta

Off topic. - samdie, Jun 18, 2011

Haha that's so irrelevant, but so brilliant! - fi123, Jun 18, 2011

Answer 5

follow me can be used in both ways. síganme and me sígan

if not used as a command there would be no accent mark on sigan - 0074b507, Jun 18, 2011

Answer 6

"Sígueme" for singular.

"Síganme" for plural.