Conditional Tense used for Intentions?
Obviously, I am not asking clearly - is the conditional tense the usual one for expressing intentions? Not what one thinks/hopes might happen, but what one intends to make happen? In English, we distinguish between future possibilities and intentions with careful wording, but I am beginning to believe that in Spanish, what one intends may be expressed quite simply with the conditional, rather than some form of the subjunctive. I guess this is a rather abstruse question ...
I am finding in my reading that in many cases where I would assume a future subjunctive would be the correct tense/mood, a conditional tense is used. In the reference section I see
The conditional (el condicional) tense in Spanish is used to express what "would" happen in the future. It is more of a possibility, or hypothetical situation, than the future tense. The formation is very similar to that of the future tense in that one set of endings is added to the infinitive to create a new tense and the irregular stems are the same as those in the future tense.
This says nothing about "intention". In a story I am reading, one person is making demands upon another. The second person assents "El hombre le dijo que así sería." Which I read, "The man told him that so it would be." Obviously he is talking about what he plans or intends - not what is a definite future happening. Is this the most popular/correct/usual way to express ... intention? Muchas gracias!
9 Answers
The conditional (el condicional) tense in Spanish is used to express what "would" happen in the future. It is more of a possibility, or hypothetical situation, than the future tense.
Well, I just don't agree with that paragraph. The conditional tense, for starters, is no strictly for the future, as it says there. Just by spotting this mistake, I wouldn't bother reading the rest, to be honest.
What I am about to tell you will probably sound to you more like witchcraft than grammar, but the conditional in Spanish is used to make "mental approximations". Intentions are mental approximations, for example, and the rest of the uses of this tense can be easily explained like this. Follow traditional grammars like the one you were reading, and you'll struggle to make sense out of their rules.
"Would" in English is not always conditional in Spanish. This modal verb sometimes fills the gap left by the lack of imperfect tense for repeated actions in the past:
When he was young, he would always laugh in the morning.
It can also be used to express desire:
Would you give me a hand?
It can also be used in negative sentences to express refusal:
I tried to do it, but he wouldn't let me.
None of the above sentences can be expressed with conditional in Spanish.
Obviously he is talking about what he plans or intends - not what is a definite future happening.
He is actually talking about a definite future, same in English for that matter
this is in grammar called indirect or reported speech. Even though you speak in conditional you are just reporting a future tense.
Look at Obama's post, it is very clear. 
The man said: I will do it. (direct speech)
the man said that he would do it. (reported speech)
This is not an intention, this is stating a fact. Technically you have to use this tense as technically we are talking about reported speech.
You have not used enough words to make that clear in English (context), but it was quite clear in Spanish. -
Lector, I don't know what makes you think it is that clear in Spanish.
It is as clear or unclear in Spanish as it is in English. I can only repeat, this is the exact same thing in English.
Peter said: "The train will leave at eight tomorrow"
Peter said that the train would leave at eight.
Now, this is probably going to happen tomorrow, but it might just as well not, as the train might be delayed, or have an accident, or there might be a strike, which would probably be thecase in Spain, jeje
El dijo: El tren sale a las ocho.
El dijo que el tren saldría a las ocho.
So this is the exact same tense in Spanish and the same intention, or the same fact , depending how you look at it, and the same everything I can think of in both languages.
I hope this is clearer now
No, no one is talking about anything "definite", why is this obscure? The man is expressing his intention; not a possibility, not a definite future occurrence and you cannot say it so easily in English. - Lector_Const
Lector, would you agree that:
The man said: I will go to the dentist tomorrow.
Is a definite ocurrence or an intention?
I mean, if you look at it that way, seeing it as an intention, nothing is really definite in the future.
And yes, you express it the EXACT SAME WAY in English. Please read my post about indirect speech ...maybe it is very technical. In any case you can check on the web or maybe post a new question
See? If I were going to use your logic about logic, you should have been able to write that line in flawless English. You didn't. - Oramasdude
Hmmm, why should he have been able to write the sentence in flawless English?
First it is very late here....just saying, 
For me it is now 2.20 am....
Then, if the sentence were the exact same thing in Spanish, we would probably have had it in flawless English as you expected, however, it is quite different in Spanish actually.
What we were talking about is that we find it amazing, that Lector should find it troublesome to understand in Spanish something which is the exact same thing in English. This was not meant to be a criticism but a comment.
I don't get the question either.
El hombre le dijo que así sería.
El hombre dijo, 'Así será'
El hombre le dijo que así habría de ser.
El hombre le dijo que así iba a ser.
But I am not reading in English - this is in Spanish,
Lector, I can understand a confusing situation when something is different in your language compared to mine, but when it is exactly the same??
Well, whatever...wait for lazarus
Lector, I don't understand the question, it is the same in English really....
